Simmer Posted July 13, 2020 Posted July 13, 2020 (edited) I was browsing the web and I came across something which claimed to be the principle of omniscience: for every function p: X → 2, ∃x ∈ X(p(x) = 0) ∨ ∀x ∈ X(p(x) = 1) I thought it looked interesting, but I can’t seem to make out just exactly how it works... is this something one can use in conjunction with absolute infinite? or is it spam... any input gladly taken. -Oliver Edited July 13, 2020 by Simmer
studiot Posted July 13, 2020 Posted July 13, 2020 1 hour ago, Simmer said: I thought it looked interesting, but I can’t seem to make out just exactly how it works... is this something one can use in conjunction with absolute infinite? This is a genuine sub sub branch of Pure Mathematics which is very obscure. Try reading this Wikipedia has a simple offering for once https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limited_principle_of_omniscience Then read a full blooded paper from Birmingham University https://www.cs.bham.ac.uk/~mhe/papers/omniscient-journal-revised.pdf Avoid the religious books by Paul Tranter They are not connected. https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=I8bKDwAAQBAJ&pg=PA69&source=gbs_selected_pages&cad=2#v=onepage&q&f=false 2
joigus Posted July 15, 2020 Posted July 15, 2020 On 7/13/2020 at 5:27 PM, studiot said: This is a genuine sub sub branch of Pure Mathematics which is very obscure. Try reading this Wikipedia has a simple offering for once https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limited_principle_of_omniscience Then read a full blooded paper from Birmingham University https://www.cs.bham.ac.uk/~mhe/papers/omniscient-journal-revised.pdf Avoid the religious books by Paul Tranter They are not connected. https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=I8bKDwAAQBAJ&pg=PA69&source=gbs_selected_pages&cad=2#v=onepage&q&f=false I wasn't aware of this branch of maths. Thanks a lot, Studiot. +1 I've found this other one: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/mathematics-constructive/ Stanford's Encyclopedia of Philosophy has helped me a lot in the past (to understand the Kochen-Specker argument in QM, for example). 1
Simmer Posted July 19, 2020 Author Posted July 19, 2020 So if I were to replace x with Ω, would the equation be able to distinguish itself to be god or bad
Simmer Posted July 19, 2020 Author Posted July 19, 2020 (edited) https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/principle+of+omniscience here’s a simpler one... Edited July 19, 2020 by Simmer 1
Simmer Posted July 21, 2020 Author Posted July 21, 2020 (edited) On 7/19/2020 at 6:51 PM, Simmer said: https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/principle+of+omniscience here’s a simpler one... I noted this one did not embed the function into itself whats the difference? Edited July 21, 2020 by Simmer
studiot Posted July 21, 2020 Posted July 21, 2020 1 hour ago, Simmer said: I noted this one did not embed the function into itself whats the difference? Sorry I don't follow. The difference between what and what? Nice link however. Thank you +1. Personally as a pragmatic Mathematician I am not with the constructionists. A short quote from Joigus' link will serve to show what I mean Quote https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/mathematics-constructive/ Constructive mathematics is distinguished from its traditional counterpart, classical mathematics, by the strict interpretation of the phrase “there exists” as “we can construct” Anyone who has studied more than the simplest differential equations will have met examples of We can prove the existence (there existence) of a solution, but that does not help us to find it. (construct). Worse, much of physics is controlled by, and therefore demonstrates the existence of solutions, to equations that we cannot solve.
Simmer Posted July 22, 2020 Author Posted July 22, 2020 (edited) Well obviously if all instances of x equal true then x is true and if only some instances of x exist but some don’t then x is false this means god as x can be thought of under the same terms, under the same similarity of x after being defined as either true or false respectively but what is the similarity of the two, truth and falsehood, that lead to a definite conclusion is it indicated in the equation already? Does the simple indication of truth and falsehood mean that the truth and falsehood is known? https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/5273/how-can-quantum-computing-win-97-of-times-in-coin-flipping-experiment?rq=1 this seemed not entirely related but still involved the same concepts Edited July 22, 2020 by Simmer
studiot Posted July 22, 2020 Posted July 22, 2020 I think some people expect too much of mathematical 'true' and 'false'. They try to use them in situations where they are inappropriate. Take the integer equation a + b = 10 What is its solution? This has an infinity of solutions which are 'true' But it also has an infinity which are 'false'.
Simmer Posted July 25, 2020 Author Posted July 25, 2020 Lol I’d take the wheels out of the cart and attach them to it if I were them...
Simmer Posted July 28, 2020 Author Posted July 28, 2020 Earlier I mentioned the absolute infinite but I failed to clarify: ∀X:Φ(X)→∃α:ΦVα(X∩Vα) should replace x in the omniscient principle ^^^
Simmer Posted August 14, 2020 Author Posted August 14, 2020 https://www.phil.uu.nl/~iemhoff/Mijn/Slides/seattle17.pdf intuitional logic
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