Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Posted

Hi all.

Which is wrong ?  'Door' or all the others ?

door is not pronounced as
poor
book
wood
root
tooth
cook
boost
doom
roof
good
hood
cool
food
loop
mood
boot
soot
school

And 'here' and 'there' ;  differ by the added 'T' with a substantial pronunciation difference, being actually more like 'der'. (another silent E.) 🤔

 

 

Posted

I'd say 'door' is wrong. It's the most democratic thing I can think of. But minorities must be respected. All my respect for 'door'. ;)

Posted (edited)

to me, none of those expressions/words are same with "door".

but with one notification: I am not native english.

within this, I would also remind you that british english and usa and canadian english also australian english are different (but british is really different, they almost nowhere use "t" in words (e.g. they do not say "get" ,they use "ge!" instead. for instance they do not say "I have got wet" ,they say "I 'v go we!" (assuming that there was a "t" but not being read, only exclamational tongue is used)

Edited by ahmet
  • 3 weeks later...
Posted
On 10/16/2020 at 12:07 PM, Externet said:

Hi all.

Which is wrong ?  'Door' or all the others ?

door is not pronounced as
poor, etc, etc...

And 'here' and 'there' ;  differ by the added 'T' with a substantial pronunciation difference, being actually more like 'der'. (another silent E.) 🤔

Please explain some more what this is about.  I don't understand your question.  What do you mean by "which is wrong?" 

Door rhymes with boar, soar, chore, core... in standard English.

Posted
On 10/17/2020 at 12:57 PM, ahmet said:

within this, I would also remind you that british english and usa and canadian english also australian english are different (but british is really different, they almost nowhere use "t" in words (e.g. they do not say "get" ,they use "ge!" instead. for instance they do not say "I have got wet" ,they say "I 'v go we!" (assuming that there was a "t" but not being read, only exclamational tongue is used)

??? For me "t" in "wet" is clearly hearable on this example:

 

If you don't know how to pronounce some word, enter it in Google Translator and/or other on-line translator like Collins, and press speaker icon e.g.

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/wet

"t" at the end is clearly hearable..

 

Posted (edited)

'Poor' and 'door' have the same 'or' ending, so phonetically: 'por' and 'dor'. One has to consider there are regional differences within the UK.  I say "dor' and 'por' but other regional variants are 'doo-er' and 'poo-er', with two distinct parts, and 'dar' and 'par' being another. 'Per' and 'der' also.

Edited by StringJunky
Posted
49 minutes ago, Sensei said:

??? For me "t" in "wet" is clearly hearable on this example:

Quote

In English phonology, t-glottalization or t-glottalling is a sound change in certain English dialects and accents that causes the phoneme /t/ to be pronounced as the glottal stop [ʔ] (About this soundlisten) in certain positions. It is never universal, especially in careful speech, and it most often alternates with other allophones of /t/ such as About this sound[t] (help·info), [tʰ], [tⁿ] (before a nasal), [tˡ] (before a lateral), or [ɾ].

As a sound change, it is a subtype of debuccalization. The pronunciation that it results in is called glottalization. Apparently, glottal reinforcement, which is quite common in English, is a stage preceding full replacement of the stop,[1] and indeed, reinforcement and replacement can be in free variation.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/T-glottalization

 

Posted (edited)
1 hour ago, Sensei said:

??? For me "t" in "wet" is clearly hearable on this example:

maybe, yes in this example. 

but I saw someone from england and they really were pronunciating that letter as I expressed. 

what is more, pronunciating a word and using it in a sentence are presumably not same.

Edited by ahmet
Posted

I don't know how Turkish is constructed, but the letters in English are divided into vowels and consonants.

T is a consonant and many consonants come in pairs.


The halves of the pair are called the voiced and unvoiced consonants of the pair.
That is because the sound is formed partly by exhaling a puff of air through the voicebox and partly by the shape and configuration of the mouth and tongue.
With a voiced and unvoiced consonants the mouth/tongue configuration is the same, but the voiced version is also sounded in the chest and voicebox.

The voiced version is louder and more pronounced than the unvoiced version.

So the t (teh) sound is the unvoiced version and the d (deh) sound the voiced counterpart.

Other pairs include s and z;  p and b.

The voiced version is louder more pronounced than the unvoiced version.
 

Posted (edited)
41 minutes ago, John Cuthber said:

As a native speaker (and reader) of English, I don't understand this idea that pronunciation should have rules.

The same thought must have people after collapse of the Roman Empire, and each branch of Latin took slightly different path, giving rise to several new languages.

Shutdown Internet, stop globalization, stop mass transport of people and goods, spread stupidity, and after a few centuries of separation Australian won't be able to understand American or Englishmen, and vice versa..

Edited by Sensei
Posted
17 hours ago, Sensei said:

The same thought must have people after collapse of the Roman Empire, and each branch of Latin took slightly different path, giving rise to several new languages.

Shutdown Internet, stop globalization, stop mass transport of people and goods, spread stupidity, and after a few centuries of separation Australian won't be able to understand American or Englishmen, and vice versa..

A native speaker will always understand the pronunciation of a native speaker; we and language will always evolve together, but in different <insert collective noun here>. 

Globalisation is impossible BTW, it's a modern utopia...

Sorry, I should have pronounced that you-top-I-ay

Posted
45 minutes ago, John Cuthber said:

Have you ever been to Glasgow?

Yeah, I infered from context... 😉

But then, I'm not a Glaswegian...

Posted
22 hours ago, John Cuthber said:

As a native speaker (and reader) of English, I don't understand this idea that pronunciation should have rules.

 

As a German speaker, I don't get how you decide to pronounce certain things. I think someone explained to me that both, English and German both originated from same Germanic roots but than were heavily influenced by romance languages and booth. And indeed, I am more fluent when I am slightly drunk.

Posted (edited)
9 minutes ago, CharonY said:

As a German speaker, I don't get how you decide to pronounce certain things. I think someone explained to me that both, English and German both originated from same Germanic roots but than were heavily influenced by romance languages and booth. And indeed, I am more fluent when I am slightly drunk.

Different regions of the UK were invaded/ influenced by different nationalities throughout history  to various degrees, so any words adopted from another region would be adapted to the local vernacular. Say, if a French-originating word got up to the North East UK, then it would be adapted to the Scandanavian influence , which woud be prevalent there

Edited by StringJunky
Posted
3 hours ago, John Cuthber said:

Have you ever been to Glasgow?

It's less true today, but fifty years ago one could identify which part of the city an individual came from by their accent. The accent thought of as Glaswegian is largely the working class accent from south of the Clyde. It was all a bit Henry Higgins across the whole country.

Posted
16 minutes ago, StringJunky said:

Different regions of the UK were invaded/ influenced by different nationalities throughout history  to various degrees, so any words adopted from another region would be adapted to the local vernacular. Say, if a French-originating word got up to the North East UK, then it would be adapted to the Scandanavian influence , which woud be prevalent there

That has influenced the English language, but I think it is not only the acquired words, but it also influenced how words were pronounced over time. 

Posted

The interesting question is not "how did English come to have so many mashed up languages" but how come the other places that had equally messy histories do not have the same ... interesting... pronunciations.
Vikings invade bits of Germany and France; so did the Romans.
 

Posted
On 11/5/2020 at 7:17 PM, John Cuthber said:

As a native speaker (and reader) of English, I don't understand this idea that pronunciation should have rules.

A good reason that comes to mind is the existence of air traffic controllers. ;)

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue.