Jose03 Posted February 19, 2021 Posted February 19, 2021 Can we use the 1st law of Mendel in case of a single gene linked to a sexual chromosome? I have an exam tomorrow i need an answer!!
Country Boy Posted February 27, 2021 Posted February 27, 2021 I assume you have already had the exam. But first, what is "the first law of Mendel"?
Jose03 Posted March 4, 2021 Author Posted March 4, 2021 Mendel's First Law states that for the pair of alleles an individual has of some gene (or at some genetic locus), one is a copy of a randomly chosen one in the father of the individual, and the other if a copy of a randomly chosen one in the mother, and that a randomly chosen one will be copied to each child. He also said that each allele has an equal chance to be the one copied, and that the copyings of alleles to different offspring or from different parents are independent. This very basic set-up underlies all of genetics. Since a parent has two alleles of each gene, the parent has 0.5 chance of passing one of the alleles to the offspring. For example, if a parent has a normal CF gene, and a mutant CF gene, he or she has a 0.5 chance of passing the mutant gene to the offspring. Likewise, he or she has a 0.5 chance of passing the normal gene to the offspring.
To_Mars_and_Beyond Posted March 13, 2021 Posted March 13, 2021 Yes you can, for a girl. A girl has two X chromosomes, one inherited from the mum and one from the father.
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