Zero Wing Posted September 6, 2005 Posted September 6, 2005 Ok, if you're not already familiar with the 'hafnium reactor', read a little about it here.. Now, as for it's x-spectrum amplification property, does it actually work via an induced gamma decay? I'm pretty sure they use the metastable isomer hafnium-172 because it has a high atomic number. But it seems like all the requirements for gamma decay demand is that the nucleus be excited to the point to where it releases a photon. Are both the Nuetrons and Protons releasing a photon, or is it really a positron emission that will soon after annihilate into gamma rays (probably the latter)? Even so, can somebody explain how the nucleus emits a photon and which partical is doing it?
insane_alien Posted September 6, 2005 Posted September 6, 2005 the atomic nucleus is unstable to begin with and absorbing an x-ray would push it "over the edge" and the protons and neutron would rearange to a lower energy state releasing energy. I think thats how it works anyway.
swansont Posted September 6, 2005 Posted September 6, 2005 It's not clear whether there it's a real effect. Some controversy exists.
Zero Wing Posted September 6, 2005 Author Posted September 6, 2005 Can you sum that up a bit? That article seems to touch more upon how much energy it will take for the initial reaction (it apparently being a bit more on average than what they originally thought/hoped for) than what type of decay it really is.
swansont Posted September 6, 2005 Posted September 6, 2005 Can you sum that up a bit? That artical seems to touch more upon how much energy it will take for the initial reaction (it apparently being a bit more on average than what they originally thought/hoped for) than what type of decay it really is. AFAIK it's an isomeric transition - a gamma released from one of the nucleons getting to a lower state. Nuclear structure is not an area of expertise, so i really can't go into any detail.
Zero Wing Posted September 6, 2005 Author Posted September 6, 2005 That sounds a lot like the wavefunction collapse (only induced, rather than random), but still falls into line with Gamma Decay, none-the-less..or is gamma decay just a form of the wavefunction collapse? That would explain a couple of things for me.
swansont Posted September 7, 2005 Posted September 7, 2005 That sounds a lot like the wavefunction collapse (only induced, rather than random), but still falls into line with Gamma Decay, none-the-less..or is gamma decay just a form of the wavefunction collapse? That would explain a couple of things for me. Not in the usual sense of the phrase. The nucleus is in a well-defined state, not a superposition. It's just that there is no direct channel to a lower state available, so the nucleus tends to stay in that state for a while. The idea behind the interaction is that the X-rays couple the nucleus to a state where it can decay, but the theory says there is no such state, and other people trying to recreate the experiment see no change in the decay rate with the X-ray exposure. If you can't replicate the experiment, you have to question the results - it becomes more likely that it was a systematic artifact of the setup rather than a real physical process.
Zero Wing Posted September 7, 2005 Author Posted September 7, 2005 The decay rate can't change, and they know that. The rate of decay is intrinsic to the particle itself, and is defined only by time. What they want is the volume of decay and when the decay begins to be manipulated, which i think is possible. As for the nucleus being in a well-defined state, i don't think a metastable isomer is in any sort of well-defined state to begin with - it's a metastable isomer, meaning it's just short of decay and already very excited. The x-rays bombarding the nucleus to induce the decay of as many atoms it can doesn't sound unreasonable. I think i lost you somewhere.
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