Genady Posted August 19, 2023 Posted August 19, 2023 3 minutes ago, DimaMazin said: Teachets teached us 0/0=1 What is in Israel? 0/0=1 is wrong everywhere.
TheVat Posted August 19, 2023 Posted August 19, 2023 In US we were taught zero is a rational number, which means it must have a nonzero denominator, i.e. it is 0/1. A rational number cannot have a zero denominator. I have have no idea what 0/0 is, but it cannot be a ratio.
DimaMazin Posted August 19, 2023 Author Posted August 19, 2023 58 minutes ago, Genady said: 0/0=1 is wrong everywhere. Well. 0/0=unknown Then E1=unknown2×0=0 E2=unknown2×0=0
Genady Posted August 19, 2023 Posted August 19, 2023 35 minutes ago, DimaMazin said: unknown2×0=0 No such thing.
DimaMazin Posted August 19, 2023 Author Posted August 19, 2023 26 minutes ago, Genady said: No such thing. Well. any2×0=0
Genady Posted August 19, 2023 Posted August 19, 2023 Just now, DimaMazin said: Well. any2×0=0 Not any. Only numbers.
studiot Posted August 19, 2023 Posted August 19, 2023 (edited) 3 hours ago, DimaMazin said: Teachets teached us 0/0=1 What is in Israel? Consider the following Let [math]y=\frac{{{2^x}-1}}{x} [/math] What is y when x = 0 ? Clue it is not 1 it is about 0.693 Edited August 19, 2023 by studiot
DimaMazin Posted August 20, 2023 Author Posted August 20, 2023 5 hours ago, Genady said: Not any. Only numbers. You don't know what is 0/0. Then what do you try to explain?
Genady Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 24 minutes ago, DimaMazin said: You don't know what is 0/0. Then what do you try to explain? Division by zero - Wikipedia Quote division by zero is undefined (a type of singularity). Since any number multiplied by zero is zero, the expression is also undefined
DimaMazin Posted August 20, 2023 Author Posted August 20, 2023 1 hour ago, Genady said: Division by zero - Wikipedia Do you think that undefined opinios of mathematicians are more useful in physics than laws of physics? 7 hours ago, studiot said: Consider the following Let y=2x−1x What is y when x = 0 ? Clue it is not 1 it is about 0.693 For y=x/x When we approach x to 0 there is no changing of the result. -2
studiot Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 (edited) 5 hours ago, DimaMazin said: For y=x/x When we approach x to 0 there is no changing of the result. What a pity you didn't simply ask how I came to my answer. If we try to substitute x = 0 into the given expression we find [math]\frac{{{2^x} - 1}}{x} \to \frac{{1 - 1}}{0} \to \frac{0}{0}[/math] Which we know we cannot do. But the situation is remedable as we can apply l'Hopital's rule thus [math]\frac{{\frac{d}{{dx}}\left( {{2^x} - 1} \right)}}{{\frac{d}{{dx}}\left( x \right)}} = \frac{{2^x}\ln 2}{1} = \ln 2 = 0.693[/math] Edited August 20, 2023 by studiot 1
Genady Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 8 hours ago, DimaMazin said: Do you think that undefined opinios of mathematicians are more useful in physics than laws of physics? I don't need to think so because there is no conflict between mathematics and physics. YOUR so-called "laws of physics" are nonsense. 1
DimaMazin Posted August 20, 2023 Author Posted August 20, 2023 3 hours ago, Genady said: I don't need to think so because there is no conflict between mathematics and physics. YOUR so-called "laws of physics" are nonsense. Let's use conservation of momentums for correct addition of velocities V3×gamma3=v1×gamma1+v2×gamma2
Genady Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 Just now, DimaMazin said: Let's use conservation of momentums for correct addition of velocities V3×gamma3=v1×gamma1+v2×gamma2 It is not a "correct addition of velocities."
DimaMazin Posted August 20, 2023 Author Posted August 20, 2023 (edited) 1 hour ago, Genady said: It is not a "correct addition of velocities." When travelers ,relative to each other , have d momentum then it is the same in any frame. Edited August 20, 2023 by DimaMazin
Genady Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 11 minutes ago, DimaMazin said: When travelers ,relative to each other , have d momentum then it is the same in any frame. This statement does not make sense.
DimaMazin Posted August 20, 2023 Author Posted August 20, 2023 4 minutes ago, Genady said: This statement does not make sense. When they have equal masses.
Genady Posted August 20, 2023 Posted August 20, 2023 4 minutes ago, DimaMazin said: When they have equal masses. It needs more clarifications.
DimaMazin Posted August 21, 2023 Author Posted August 21, 2023 9 hours ago, Genady said: It needs more clarifications. When you have got change of momentum dp then any observer,in any frame, defines the your change of momentum as the same dp.
Genady Posted August 21, 2023 Posted August 21, 2023 6 hours ago, DimaMazin said: When you have got change of momentum dp then any observer,in any frame, defines the your change of momentum as the same dp. What does make you think so?
DimaMazin Posted August 22, 2023 Author Posted August 22, 2023 On 8/21/2023 at 12:39 PM, Genady said: What does make you think so? A very simple refutation of Einstein's law of addition of velocities.
Genady Posted August 22, 2023 Posted August 22, 2023 1 minute ago, DimaMazin said: A very simple refutation of Einstein's law of addition of velocities. It is called "a wishful thinking." 1
studiot Posted August 22, 2023 Posted August 22, 2023 Quote Hawking, via Moontanman “The greatest enemy of knowledge is not ignorance, but illusion of knowledge.” — Stephen Hawking Hawking, via Moontanman, his joke in the jokes thread is rather good too. 1
DimaMazin Posted August 23, 2023 Author Posted August 23, 2023 17 hours ago, Genady said: It is called "a wishful thinking." Yes, i mistaken. 1
DimaMazin Posted August 24, 2023 Author Posted August 24, 2023 The Einstein's law is incorrect because we cannot use the same module of reverse velocities in two frames. 😝
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