ecoli Posted September 17, 2005 Posted September 17, 2005 I have a question about improper integrals. Say you have a function with an asymptote at, say x=5. But you only have to integrate until x=4. Is is still considered an improper integral?
Dave Posted September 17, 2005 Posted September 17, 2005 I always thought that an improper integral is one defined with one or both limits set to [imath]\infty[/imath]? (i.e. [imath]\int_a^{\infty} f \, dx[/imath] or whatever).
ecoli Posted September 17, 2005 Author Posted September 17, 2005 not necessarily. An integral can also be improper, such as the graph ln(x), there is an asympote at x=0 so it's improper. But is you integrate from, say 1 to 2, is it still considerexd improper?
Dave Posted September 18, 2005 Posted September 18, 2005 Well, no. That's certainly a definite integral. I've never been taught improper integrals explicitly so I'm taking my definition from MathWorld.
TD Posted September 19, 2005 Posted September 19, 2005 @ Dave, Mathworld is correct but it included these kind of improper integrals. An improper integral is a definite integral that has either or both limits infinite or an integrand that approaches infinity at one or more points in the range of integration. The bold part includes the integrands with, for example, zeroes of the denominator so vertical asymptotes. @ ecoli: no, the integral isn't considered as improper then
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