nfornick Posted September 22, 2005 Posted September 22, 2005 Show that a/c + b/a + c/b > a+b+c, for a, b, c > 0 and a*b*c<1
BigMoosie Posted September 22, 2005 Posted September 22, 2005 [math]\frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{a} + \frac{c}{b} > a+b+c[/math] [math]a + b + c > (a+b+c)(abc)[/math] [math]0 > (a+b+c)(abc - 1)[/math]
timo Posted September 22, 2005 Posted September 22, 2005 That´s not correct. The 2nd line would be: a²b + b²c + c²a > (a+b+c)(abc)
albertlee Posted September 22, 2005 Posted September 22, 2005 extending from Atheist, a2b + b2c + c2a > (a+b+c)(abc) ==> a2b + b2c + c2a > a2bc+ab2c+abc2 therefore: 0 > (c-1)a2b+(a-1)b2c+(b-1)ac2
Mobius Posted September 22, 2005 Posted September 22, 2005 (c-1)a2b+(a-1)b2c+(b-1)ac2 And how are you proving that this is a negative number? I don't seem to be ble to solve this inequality mathematically BUT I can solve it logically. In order to satisfy a*b*c<0 where they are all positive values then at least ONE of them must be a fraction and the other two numbers cannot multiply together to be greater than the denominator. e.g. 1/20, 3, 5... When multiplied this gives 3/4. Now:- a/c + b/a + c/b > a+b+c On the left hand side a, b and c are all denominators, one of them will be a fraction (say a) and as it is on the bottom line it will be inverted and will be large. It will also be larger then the other two numbers added together (b + c) due to my logic above (a*b*c<0). i.e. if it is larger than the product it will be larger than the sum. So the right hand side will be b + c plus the fraction which will be smaller than the left had side. Of course if a, b and c are all fractions then this inequality is obvious as when fractions are divided the answer is always greater (or equal) then either of the two fractions to begin with. this is not very mathematical and I'm sure if there is a flaw in my logic it will be pointed out.... It is a logical proof however (I did try for a mathematical one!).
Mobius Posted September 23, 2005 Posted September 23, 2005 Your last equation 0 > (c-1)a^2b+(a-1)b^2c+(b-1)ac^2, would make sense if a, b and c were ALL fractions, but as I pointed out in my last post only 1 of them has to be a fraction (according to the original conditions). I think my proof is fine but it may have a flaw... Awaiting confirmation!!!!
BigMoosie Posted September 23, 2005 Posted September 23, 2005 That´s not correct. The 2nd line would be: a²b + b²c + c²a > (a+b+c)(abc) oops, stupid me
nfornick Posted September 24, 2005 Author Posted September 24, 2005 Re: Mobius a*b*c<1 but not a*b*c<0 "at least ONE of them must be a fraction" means one or two may be a fraction "one of them will be a fraction (say a) and as it is on the bottom line it will be inverted and will be large. It will also be larger then the other two numbers added together (b + c)" a*b*c<1 does not imply 1/a>b+c say a=1/3, b=1, c=2
Mobius Posted September 24, 2005 Posted September 24, 2005 "at least ONE of them must be a fraction" means one or two may be a fraction Doesn't matter of 2 of them are fractions, this just strengtens the case. 1/a>b+c say a=1/3, b=1, c=2 That is true, in this case 1/a = b + c However there are two more numbers to be added to that 1/a (or b/a) as it would be. Now I did say it would be greater but as you showed it could be equal, however as there are 2 more numbers to be added to it, it will always be greater...
dttom Posted September 28, 2005 Posted September 28, 2005 L.H.S. a/c + b/a + c/b =[(a^2)b+(b^2)c+(c^2)a]/abc let x as abc which is smaller than 1 =(a^2b+b^2c+c^2a)/x L.H.S.*x=a^2b+b^2c+c^2a R.H.S*x=(a+b+c)abc =(a^2)bc+a(b^2)c+ab(c^2) =(c-1)(a^2b)+(a-1)(b^2c)+(b-1)(c^2a)+a^2b+b^2c+c^2a let LHS*x as r and RHS*x as w, r-r=0 w-r=(c-1)(a^2b)+(a-1)(b^2c)+(b-1)(c^2a) 0>abc(a+b+c)-(a^2b+b^2c+c^2a)
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