Sarahisme Posted September 23, 2005 Posted September 23, 2005 [math] m = 0.1g = 0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg [/math] [math] \Delta t = 0.1 s [/math] PE of ball = [math] (0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m) [/math] but only 0.05% of it is converted into a sound wave so : Energy (E) = [math] (0.0005)(0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m) [/math] Now Power is Energy per unit time, so Power (P) is: [math] E = \frac{(0.0005)(0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m)}{0.1s} [/math] Intensity is Power per unit area (since it can be approimated to a point source of sound the area is the surface area of a sphere, [math] 4 \pi r^2 [/math], so Intensity is : [math] I = \frac{(0.0005)(0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m)}{(0.1s)(4 \pi r^2)} [/math] Since we are given that the lowest audible intensity is [math] 10^{-11} Wm^{-2} [/math] then we set I = [math] 10^{-11} Wm^{-2} [/math] so we have: [math] \frac{(0.0005)(0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m)}{(0.1s)(4 \pi r^2)} = 10^{-11} Wm^{-2} [/math] So then rearranging and solving for r gives: r = 200 m ( to 1 sig. fig.) now for part (b) we just set I = [math] 10^{-8} Wm^{-2} [/math] instead, so we have : [math] \frac{(0.0005)(0.1 \times 10^{-3} kg)(9.81 ms^{-2})(1m)}{(0.1s)(4 \pi r^2)} = 10^{-8} Wm^{-2} [/math] now rearraging for r gives : r = 6 m (to 1 sig. fig.)
Sarahisme Posted September 23, 2005 Author Posted September 23, 2005 oh yeah, i just wanted to know if i had done things correctly? :S
mezarashi Posted September 25, 2005 Posted September 25, 2005 Your approach seems good enough ^^. Should be okay.
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