Scienc Posted October 29, 2023 Posted October 29, 2023 Can someone give me a hint on how can I prove it?
studiot Posted October 29, 2023 Posted October 29, 2023 Use Spherical coordinates for the angular momentum operator [math]{I^2} = - \hbar \left[ {\frac{1}{{\sin \theta }}\frac{\partial }{{\partial \theta }}\left( {\sin \theta \frac{\partial }{{\partial \theta }}} \right) + \frac{1}{{{{\sin }^2}\theta }}\frac{{{\partial ^2}}}{{\partial {\phi ^2}}}} \right][/math] to solve [math]{I^2}Y\left( {\theta ,\phi } \right) = {\hbar ^2}\lambda Y\left( {\theta ,\phi } \right)[/math] for eigenvalues.
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