Meital Posted September 25, 2005 Posted September 25, 2005 Can someone help me with the following proof: Suppose f ,g: X -> [- infinity, + infinity] are measurable. Prove that the sets { x : f(x) < g(x) } , {x: f(x) = g(x) } are measurable.
Meital Posted September 26, 2005 Author Posted September 26, 2005 I figured it out..I don't know why I thought it was difficult! Thanks though
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