Linkey Posted 4 hours ago Share Posted 4 hours ago https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_pseudo-telepathy Quote The prefix pseudo refers to the fact that quantum pseudo-telepathy does not involve the exchange of information between any parties. Instead, quantum pseudo-telepathy removes the need for parties to exchange information in some circumstances. I want to understand this phrase, and here is a simple explanation. Let's consider Alice and Bob are playing a card game like bridge. This game has a random element - each of the player deals the cards. Consider this game is played on a computer, and for random dealing of the cards, a pseudo random numbers generator is used. And Alice and Bob can make a deal that they use the same PRNG, so when Alice sees what random numbers she gets - she will know what numbers will Bob get. They can use this information for cooperating against other players. Another example: in many tasks the PRNGs are used, and to avoid their disadvantages, a RNG can be created which uses some astronomical data, maybe some random numbers from quasars (sorry if this is an improper example). And then several people can use the same quasar RNG so they will know that some other people will get the same numbers as they. Is this explanation correct? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mordred Posted 4 hours ago Share Posted 4 hours ago Well I was thinking this would belong more in Speculation however there is actual research papers on the topic. Wiki does a very poor job explaining it by the way. "Quantum Pseudo-Telepathy" https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0407221 Haven't studied it yet but figured the article would prove useful Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MigL Posted 3 hours ago Share Posted 3 hours ago Random number generators are not random; they do eventually repeat. The example you describe uses that mathematical knowledge to predict which 'random' number will come up next. If that is pseudo-telepathy, then this belongs in pseudo-science. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Genady Posted 2 hours ago Share Posted 2 hours ago 1 hour ago, Linkey said: Is this explanation correct? No, it is not. Your examples do not employ quantum entanglement. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted 2 hours ago Share Posted 2 hours ago 9 minutes ago, Genady said: No, it is not. Your examples do not employ quantum entanglement. Quantum entanglement could possibly be simulated if the proper correlations are in place. -- My reading of this is that the description is a little deceptive. There is no exchange of information after the fact, but the basis for measurement is agreed upon beforehand, which is information of a sort. It's just not information about the state of the particles. That's something entanglement allows that would permit instantaneous decisions without communication - we measure our entangled particles and if Alice measures spin up, she takes course of action A and if it's down she does B. Similarly for Bob. The information was shared beforehand so there's no superluminal communication. The actual decision isn't made until measurement, is still random, and the actions are correlated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mordred Posted 49 minutes ago Share Posted 49 minutes ago It's an interesting thought experiment and I for one thank @Linkey for bringing it up as it's the first time I have heard of this. My take on the paper is that the author is rather clear that no causation is involved nor does it allow any FTL communication. What the author refers to as psuedo-telepathy I took to be a descriptive of as "seeming to involve communication". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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