Genady Posted December 26, 2024 Posted December 26, 2024 H is a finite subset of a group G, and for each h1, h2 in H their combination h1h2 is also in H. Is H a group?
KJW Posted December 26, 2024 Posted December 26, 2024 (edited) No. The subset also must contain the identity as well as the inverses for all elements of the subset. The associative property is however inherited from the group G. Edited December 26, 2024 by KJW
Genady Posted December 26, 2024 Author Posted December 26, 2024 (edited) I think, that being finite and closed guarantees that it contains the identity and all the inverses. Edited December 26, 2024 by Genady
KJW Posted December 26, 2024 Posted December 26, 2024 (edited) 30 minutes ago, Genady said: I think, that being finite and closed guarantees that it contains the identity and all the inverses. Can you provide a proof? I can't at this time provide a counterexample. EDIT: I think you may be correct. If one chooses a single non-identity element as a generator, then if it is a finite generator, the subset generated must contain the identity element and all the inverses of the elements of the generated subset, and hence be a group. But if the generator is not finite, then the subset generated is not necessarily a group. Edited December 26, 2024 by KJW
Genady Posted December 26, 2024 Author Posted December 26, 2024 IOW, Let's take any h in H. Because of H being closed, all combinations h, hh, hhh, ... are in H. But because of H being finite, some combinations should repeat, say hm = hn for some m<n. Then hn = hmhn-m = hm and thus hn-m is identity, e (from G). e = hn-m is thus contained in H. Now, if n-m = 1, then e = h is inverse of itself. Otherwise, e = hhn-m-1, which makes hn-m-1 an inverse of h.
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