--00-- Posted November 13, 2005 Posted November 13, 2005 i was wondering if somebody had any ideas about this: the gradient of a horizontal line = 0 the gradient of a vertical line = infinity but the product of the gradients of perpendicular lines is -1 so does that mean that 0 x infinity = -1 ??? ... or is there something in the proof for the product of the gradients equalling -1 which excludes it for these values?
BigMoosie Posted November 13, 2005 Posted November 13, 2005 The limit of x->infinity multiplied by limit of y->0 from below is -1, but the gradient of a vertical line is undefined.
matt grime Posted November 13, 2005 Posted November 13, 2005 but the product of the gradients of perpendicular lines is -1 it is? but that would require infinity to be a real number, which it isn't. (that is to say this result is only true if both gradients are defined, and infinity is not acceptable in this context)
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