Meital Posted November 27, 2005 Posted November 27, 2005 Prove or disprove: If the boundary of set omega in R^d has an outer measure zero, then omega is Lebesgue measurable. I was trying to come up with a counter example, but I couldn't. Then I tried to prove it, yet I was not able to do so. Please help me
Dave Posted November 28, 2005 Posted November 28, 2005 Just to let you know that I'm thinking about the problem. It sort of makes sense and I'm unable to find a counter-example, so it's beginning to look true. Did you get anywhere with this?
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