Danny6777 Posted December 29, 2005 Posted December 29, 2005 Do most of the European scientist that people think are germanic or celtic actually have jewish ancestors? Are there any books that give information about jewish people in northern europe at the time when romans came into northern europe? Would anyone know of if roman males who invaded northern europe also bred alot of germanic and celtic women?
cosine Posted December 29, 2005 Posted December 29, 2005 Thats alot to ask for. Why do you want to know?
ecoli Posted December 29, 2005 Posted December 29, 2005 I'm not sure about the actualy answer, but I would like to know why you're asking such a question.
Danny6777 Posted December 29, 2005 Author Posted December 29, 2005 I'm not sure about the actualy answer, but I would like to know why you're asking such a question. Most all the scientist in today's world are jewish or have jewish ancestors. I was just wanting to know if jewish domination of the sciences goes further back in time.
ecoli Posted December 29, 2005 Posted December 29, 2005 Most all the scientist in today's world are jewish or have jewish ancestors. I was just wanting to know if jewish domination of the sciences goes further back in time. This isn't really true though. It's true that a lot of Jews enter science, but I wouldn't really say that most of the scientists are Jewish. But at any rate, this website might interest you, as well as the scientific study associated with it. http://www.kuro5hin.org/story/2005/7/29/20293/9910
Danny6777 Posted December 29, 2005 Author Posted December 29, 2005 This isn't really true though. It's true that a lot of Jews enter science, but I wouldn't really say that most of the scientists are Jewish. But at any rate, this website might interest you, as well as the scientific study associated with it. [url']http://www.kuro5hin.org/story/2005/7/29/20293/9910[/url] The article says that ashkenazi jews had a evolution bottleneck in medieval europe with respect to their having to work jobs that envolved money. But most jews in the mediterranean world and middle east worked jobs that envolved trading, very few jews worked manual labor jobs. Sephardic jews in spain held alot of the high status jobs in that country before the inquisition, so why did it not happen with the other groups of jews?
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