Primarygun Posted February 13, 2006 Posted February 13, 2006 Here I got a conceptual problem rarely mentioned by my teacher. When we try to figure the value of a definite integral, the general method is to find out the expression(value) of the indefinite integral, right? but, when we change the dx to d(-x), a must change must be produced correspondingly, that's changing the upper limit and lower limit, right? [math] \int_a^b x \,dx [/math]
matt grime Posted February 13, 2006 Posted February 13, 2006 since these are dummy variables let's keep the names separate. so set y=-x, and dy=-dx then the upper limit of x=b must mean y=-x=-b, and the lower limit becomes -a.
Primarygun Posted February 15, 2006 Author Posted February 15, 2006 Thanks for kind reply to my question. [math] \int_a^b f(x) \,dx = \int_a^b f(y) \,dy [/math] This is where a dummy variable could be used. But, put y=-x and f(x)=x^2, from the formula above, We must keep the limits constant, However, this gives a different answer.Why?
matt grime Posted February 15, 2006 Posted February 15, 2006 The substitution y=-x gives the same answer. Just try it. It changes the integral to [math]\int_{-a}^{-b}-y^2 dy[/math] Why do you think you 'must keep the limits constant' (which doesn't really make sense).
Primarygun Posted February 16, 2006 Author Posted February 16, 2006 couldn't y be the dummy variable? Thanks
matt grime Posted February 16, 2006 Posted February 16, 2006 y is a dummy variable, so is x, that is why you can do substitutions.
Primarygun Posted February 17, 2006 Author Posted February 17, 2006 If I put -x as the dummy variable, it is correct? i.e. replace the y with -x directly without changing the limit
Connor Posted February 17, 2006 Posted February 17, 2006 no, because you must substitute the dummy for the limits too
Primarygun Posted February 17, 2006 Author Posted February 17, 2006 no, because you must substitute the dummy for the limits too Why? Isn't the formula in reply 3 true?
matt grime Posted February 17, 2006 Posted February 17, 2006 What are the limits they go from x=a to x=b, so if you set y=-x, then why are the limits y=a to y=b the same after this subsitution? You've just asserted that a=x=-y=-a and b=-b similarly. Certainly the formula in post 3 is true, but it is substituting y=x. Doing y=-x does not effect that change of integral, when f(x)=x^2, the substitution also changes the dx to a -dy, doesn't it? Moral of story: don't mix and match, changing x to -y must be done at all points the x appears. The fact that [math]\int_a^bx^2dx=\int_a^b(-x)^2dx[/math] does not happen because of a substitution, it is because x^2=(-x)^2
Primarygun Posted February 19, 2006 Author Posted February 19, 2006 Doing y=-x does not effect that change of integral, when f(x)=x^2, the substitution also changes the dx to a -dy, doesn't it? When can we use the formula in reply 3?
matt grime Posted February 19, 2006 Posted February 19, 2006 You don't give a formula in post three apart from one that is trivially always true [math]\int_a^bf(x)dx=\int_a^bf(y)dy[/math] that is gotten by subsituting y=x in to the integral.
Primarygun Posted February 19, 2006 Author Posted February 19, 2006 Apart from relating y=x, what else can x be substituted?
Dave Posted February 19, 2006 Posted February 19, 2006 You can set x to be equal to (pretty much) anything as long as you change the limits. A typical substitution might be something like [imath]x = \cos\theta[/imath].
Connor Posted February 19, 2006 Posted February 19, 2006 okay, I guess you don't have to change the limits if you substitute the original variable back after integration
matt grime Posted February 19, 2006 Posted February 19, 2006 Apart from relating y=x, what else can x be substituted? Absolutely any other letter, or any other reasonable function of x (ie don't pick one that is not differentiable). Now, what was the point of all this?
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