Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Posted March 21, 2006 Hey all, i am a little confused with this problem.. well i have only tried part (a) so far, so that is what my current question is concerning. my problem is that when i work out c_n i get that it is some multiple of sin(n*pi) which is obviously zero for all n. in which case i cant work out Psi(x,t)?! i have put the integrals into maple and everything but it gives me the same thing... 0 any ideas anyone? -sarah
timo Posted March 21, 2006 Posted March 21, 2006 I fail to find a c_n in the text. But since I have a guess what it´s supposed to be: I think the poblem assumes that you know the (energy-) eigenstates of the particle (after all, they are given - you only have to identify them).
Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Author Posted March 21, 2006 hmm now i have now tried the other bits of the question, seems i can't quite get any of it
Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Author Posted March 21, 2006 I fail to find a c_n in the text. But since I have a guess what it´s supposed to be: I think the poblem assumes that you know the (energy-) eigenstates of the particle (after all, they are given - you only have to identify them). so is all i have to do is say that: [math] \Psi(x,t) = (\sqrt(\frac{2}{5a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a}) + \sqrt(\frac{8}{5a})sin(\frac{2 \pi x}{a})) e^{-i(n^2 \pi^2 \hbar/(2ma^2))t} [/math] but then, wouldnt the sketches be the same? :S i am having real trouble with this problem, lol
timo Posted March 21, 2006 Posted March 21, 2006 Psi is a superposition of two eigenstates with diferent energies (different n in your case). So you cannot multiply the whole wavefunction by a common phase to get the time-developement.
Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Author Posted March 21, 2006 k yeah that makes sense. so how do you think this would look for Psi(x,t): [math] \Psi(x,t) = (\sqrt(\frac{2}{5a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a}))e^{-i( \pi^2 \hbar/(2ma^2))t} + (\sqrt(\frac{8}{5a})sin(\frac{2 \pi x}{a}))e^{-i(4 \pi^2 \hbar/(2ma^2))t} [/math] but i still have the problem of when i go to sketch at the two specfied times..... i get the feeling this is still wrong??
timo Posted March 21, 2006 Posted March 21, 2006 I can´t see any problem sketching that function except for that your piece of paper lacks a dimension so you can´t plot a R->C (time -> value of wf) function on it. Either plot real and imaginary parts seperately or plot psi². I can´t see how the wavefunction should look the same for both times. At t=0, the exponential factor gives 1 for both, at the other time, the first eigenfunction will be multiplied by -1 and the second by 1 -> I doubt that this results in the same function. EDIT: ^^ And putting that together, the wavefunction will be real-valued for both times, anyways so there´s even less of a problem.
Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Author Posted March 21, 2006 oh ok, i thought when it said sketch the wavefunction, it meant sketch the spatial part , because i thought you couldnt really sketch the time-dependent part because of the imaginary stuff. also for part (b), do you think it means "returns to its original form" means Psi(x,0) ? if so, doesnt that never happen because the time-dependent part needs to be one, and this only happens once (at t = 0 )?
Sarahisme Posted March 21, 2006 Author Posted March 21, 2006 ok here is what i got part ©: <x> = [math] \frac{a}{2} - \frac{32a}{9 \pi^2 \sqrt(10)}cos(\frac{3 \pi^2 \hbar t}{2ma^2}) [/math] and so angular frequency is: [math] \omega = \frac{3 \pi^2 \hbar}{2ma^2} [/math] and the amplitude of oscillation is : [math] \frac{a}{2} - \frac{32a}{9 \pi^2 \sqrt(10)} [/math] is that anywhere near the right answer?
Sarahisme Posted March 22, 2006 Author Posted March 22, 2006 ok i am pretty sure that i've got parts (a) and © all i am having trouble now is with part (b) (when will it return to orginal state) and (d).
Sarahisme Posted March 22, 2006 Author Posted March 22, 2006 ok, nevermind, think i got it! yay! although i am a little unsure what the 'uncertainty' in the energy refers to? you work it out by taking sqrt(<E^2>-<E>^2) is it the uncertainty in your measurement? or does it affect your measurement or what? i am little confused
Sarahisme Posted March 23, 2006 Author Posted March 23, 2006 nm, got it. thanks once again for all your help Atheist! -sarah
Norman Albers Posted April 5, 2006 Posted April 5, 2006 so how do you think this would look for Psi(x' date='t): [math'] \Psi(x,t) = (\sqrt(\frac{2}{5a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a}))e^{-i( \pi^2 \hbar/(2ma^2))t} + (\sqrt(\frac{8}{5a})sin(\frac{2 \pi x}{a}))e^{-i(4 \pi^2 \hbar/(2ma^2))t} [/math] How do you get the squares up in the argument of the exponents (i-omega-t, per mode)?
Norman Albers Posted April 6, 2006 Posted April 6, 2006 OK, I see now that the h-bar takes out one of the "2pi's" so I am seeing the construction.
nicobudini Posted April 7, 2006 Posted April 7, 2006 Once someone said: "If you don't get confused with quantum mechanics... then you didn't understand it"
Norman Albers Posted April 7, 2006 Posted April 7, 2006 At the age of 57, I can say that every few years or so I have again approached quantum mechanics for the n'th time. Each time I feel I am ready to see deeper and this is so. I have learned to be able to start reading things I cannot even understand, because I am well prepared to go further with the necessary work. I skip around, go back, repeat, etc. Now the value of 'n' is roughly 8, and I have done significant work in E&M field theory. I am really gonna get stuff together this time.
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