EvoN1020v Posted April 6, 2006 Posted April 6, 2006 Given f(x)=1/x; e(x)=x^2 + 4; g(x)=x^3 Consider g(e(f(x))), f(e(g(x))), and e(f(g(x))). Question: Make an intelligent conjecture about the relationship between the range of a composite function and the exponential powers of the original functions. g(e(f(x))) and e(f(g(x))) is [math]\frac{1}{x^6}+4[/math]. f(e(g(x))) is [math]\frac{1}{x^6+4}[/math]. The question is asking to find the relationship between the range of a composite function and the exponential powers of the original functions. For instance: g(e(f(x))), e(f(g(x))), and f(e(g(x))) have an infinity range. The exponentials of the original functions are: -1, 2, and 3. I'm not sure how there is a relationship? I have no idea. Can anyone help me out here?
matt grime Posted April 6, 2006 Posted April 6, 2006 Can any of the functions ever take negative values? ("Have an infinity range" doesn't make any sense as a sentence in the English language; all sentences in mathematics should make sense as grammatical constructs.)
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