Is it wrong coincident?

[AlienUFO]

When I studied about Casimir effect of attractive force, analogous to 18th century French sailors:"Where two ships are rocking from side to side in conditions with a strong swell but light wind, and the ships come closer together than roughly 40 m, destructive interference eliminates the swell between the ships. The calm sea between the ships has a lower energy density than the swell to either side of the ships, creating a pressure that can push the ships closer together."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Casimir_effect#Analogies

 

Drawing from above observation, I come out two conclusions:

-constructive interference causes repulsive force between objects on the wave

-destructive interference causes attractive force between objects on the wave

 

Then I also figure out two more postulates:

-In-phased waves are attractive on waves itself

-Out-phased waves are repulsive on waves itself

So I suddenly thought that I had solve one the physics mysteries

In the case of wave-particle, from above postulates, since in-phased waves are attractive while out-phased waves will repel (side by side), hence constructive interference pattern is cause by this attractive force and destructive interference pattern is cause by the repulsive force.

 

But later on, I think that it might just wrong coincident. I would like to try it by experiment, if I know what and how to do it.

[5614]

That is not really how the Casimir effect is explained. The analogy is technically incorrect when you examine it in this level of detail.

 

The Casimir effect occurs because the space between the two plates is so small that most virtual particles cannot exist. In terms of waves, it is the wavelength which is too long to exist between the two plates.

 

However outside of the plates there are all the normal virtual particles. As this is a vacuum and there is more matter (even thought it is virtual) outside there is a greater pressure from the outside and so the plates feel an attractive force towards each other.

 

There is nothing about constructive or deconstructive interference.

[AlienUFO]

Well actually I am not talking about Casimir effects, it was when I was searching for Casimir effect and suddenly came out idea of forces that might could explain by wave interferences.

 

And actually I tried the concept not only just wave-particle interference, but for most of the fundamantel forces, like electromagnet. I didn't mention those because all just maybe wrong coincident. Well, afer deeper insight most likely to be failed.

[5614]

In the case of the ships the two water waves cancelled each other out so no waves were present.

 

In physics two particles cannot cancel each other like this; they would still physically exist and so would the forces caused by them.

[AlienUFO]

No, I know the particles are discrete.

 

But still, the particles behave like wave. So what actually I am thinking is if the particle waves are water waves, then the space/vacum may act like those ships. So meaning that the destructive particle waves push the space/vacum into the destructive interference wavefront while the particles themself are push away from the destructive interference wavefront. Or in the other way round. During the whole process wavelike particles don't cancel each other like water waves do.

 

In fact that making idea of space/vacum can be dislocated is bad.

[5614]

So what actually I am thinking is if the particle waves are water waves

But I don't think they can be. A particle is a physical entity which cannot just be eliminated.... ahh, I just had an idea. You could have destructive interference in this scenario, but only if it were with matter and antimatter, that would allow the two entities to cancel each other out. That sounds like a clever idea to me!

 

During the whole process wavelike particles don't cancel each other like water waves do.

Agreed. Although if you used a particle and an antiparticle they could and do cancel each other out.

 

So in conclusion I think that you could only get destructive interference from matter interacting with antimatter.

[AlienUFO]

I don't think matter and anti-matter can undergo interference before pass through double-slit, they vanished before they could.

 

The destructive interference here is not mean the particles cancel up each other, but they are just like they don't like where they are out-phase amongselfs and so repel to two parts away and form constructive interference.

 

For example, you can't make a bike move by rolling its wheels by opposite direction, if the wheels have force big enough, the bike breaks into two parts. However, the wheels move together when they roll in the same direction, and the more the wheels are "in-phase" (if the wheels are rolling with independent speed), the more stable the bike moves.

[5614]

Woo man, stick to one thing at a time. First it was the Casimir effect, then it wasn't, now the double slit!

 

The reason I suggested the matter and antimatter thing was because I was thinking of your "sea" of particles between two objects. You were talking about how these particles could cancel each other out. The only way a "sea" of particles could cancel each other out is if they were matter and antimatter particles.

 

Moving onto the double slit experiment... what do you mean? In this experiment the probability wave belonging to an individual particle interferes with itself. Remember you still get the same results if you fire each particle individually. Now what are you talking about using matter and antimatter for the double slit experiment?

[AlienUFO]

Sorry, I thought that people will relating both double-slits and interference are same thing, which actually not. And actually the only thing I mention are interference and 'that force' I mentioned.

 

Oh... I see. I forgotten that actually interference are not only happen at single or duoble slits.

 

Let's clarify this, I said that in-phase wave (for wave-particles only, which they don't superimposible) are attractive to each other, and out-phase wave are repulsive to each other. And that force is perpendicular to its direction.

[5614]

Sorry, I thought that people will relating both double-slits and interference are same thing, which actually not. And actually the only thing I mention are interference and 'that force' I mentioned.

The double slit experiment can be explained by intereference, but they are not actually the same thing.

 

Oh... I see. I forgotten that actually interference are not only happen at single or duoble slits.

Indeed. An easy example is the example you gave at the beginning of the thread where the water waves interfere with each other deconstructively.

 

Let's clarify this, I said that in-phase wave (for wave-particles only, which they don't superimposible) are attractive to each other, and out-phase wave are repulsive to each other. And that force is perpendicular to its direction.

Is this a statement or a question? Either way I don't follow. Two waves which are in phase feel some attractive force? Not that I know of. And the same for waves which are out of phase, why would they feel a repulsive force?

[AlienUFO]

I don't know either, because I am asking a question to a statement that elaborate from assumption by myself. It is all my misconception.

 

If nobody figure out how and why this is wrong, I consider it is wrong. Anyway, I never think it is right. Maybe I am just being unretional sometime and make false thinking.