Sarahisme Posted May 7, 2006 Posted May 7, 2006 Hi all, i have done this question which involves capillary waves. where we started with [math] \lambda \propto \lambda^{-3/2} [/math] then i found that [math] v_{phase} = \frac{\lambda^{-1/2}}{2\pi} [/math] and [math] v_{group} = \frac{3\lambda^{-1/2}}{4\pi} [/math] and thus taking the ratio of the two gives that the group velocity is 1.5 times the the phase velocity. I am them asked to explain the meaning of this result, and i am a little unsure of how to answer that.... any ideas/hints etc.? Cheers Sarah
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