Sarahisme Posted May 21, 2006 Posted May 21, 2006 hey i am having a bit of trouble with this problem, as the course textbook has nothing on doing these problems using green's functions (all we have is a few slides of dodgey lecture notes)... anyways... the problem.. so to start with, for part (a) now from what i can gather, the BVP has a unique solution if and only if the corresponding HBVP (homogeneous boundary value problem) y''=0, y(0)=0, y(1) = 0 has no solution other than the trivial one, y(x) = 0. i guess then the associated HLDE (homogenous linear differential equation) needs to be solved... so y''(0) = 0 so we look for answers of the form y(x) = Ax + B then the left boundary condition (y(0) = 0 ) leads to u(x) = Ax is this the right way to go about things? cheers -Sarah
Sarahisme Posted May 22, 2006 Author Posted May 22, 2006 hmm ok, how does this look..? for the 'appropritate Green's Function' for part (a): The left boundary condition gives: u(x) = x and the right boundary condition gives: v(x) = x - 1 so the wronskian = W(x) = uv' - u'v = x - (x-1) = 1 so u,v are linearly independent. then the greens function is [math] G(x,e) = x(\epsilon - 1) [/tex] for [tex] 0 \leq x \leq \epsilon [/math] [math] G(x,e) = \epsilon(x - 1) [/tex] for [tex] \epsilon \leq x \leq 1 [/math] So the solution to the associated boundary value problem with homogenous conditions is: [math] y(x) = \int_0^1G(x,\epsilon)f(\epsilon)d\epsilon [/math] so then is the solution to the orginal BVP something like [math] y(x) = \int_0^1G(x,\epsilon)f(\epsilon)d\epsilon + A +Bx [/math] ????? this is where i think i get quite lost (maybe before here if i have already made a giant mistake somewhere! )
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