zakfab Posted November 18, 2003 Posted November 18, 2003 I have just done a bit about DC motors in a lab, and now i have to derive the equation: E = K(fi)(omega) E = back emf K = Z/(2(pi) where z = number of conductors carrying current, I (fi) = magnetic flux (omega) = angular velocity of motor (rad/s) So I have to derive that from Faraday's Law, which I assume means: E = -N(d(fi)/dt) N = number of turns of a coil t = time? I don't have a clue where to start! Someone pleeese help ASAP!
Squintz Posted November 18, 2003 Posted November 18, 2003 Sorry i dont understnad your question. I could probably help you find your answer since i work with many electrical engineers and i myself have studied electronics but im not sure what it is your trying to derive. If you are more detailed i may be able to ask one of the engineers arround here. I would have to make it sound like i know what im talking about so they would think it was for me and not some guy on the internet. Give me details and i will try to help!
zakfab Posted November 18, 2003 Author Posted November 18, 2003 I wish I knew! The lab was about characteristics of DC motors, comparing torque with armature current/voltage (don't ask me what armature is!) and speed in rads per second. I have to derive the equation E = K(phi)(omega) using Faraday's Law, which i believe is E = -N(d(phi)/dt) All the other stuff I wrote was trying to explain what I meant in the equations because I don't know how to do symbols on here.
iglak Posted November 19, 2003 Posted November 19, 2003 the armature is the arms that have wire wrapped around them that cause the spinning motion. sorry, i can't help beyond that
zakfab Posted November 21, 2003 Author Posted November 21, 2003 I got help elsewhere when the forum went down, thanks anyway!
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