Primarygun Posted July 27, 2006 Share Posted July 27, 2006 1.Why if f(x) is not divisible by 4, then, it has no integral solutions? 2. If p l ab, then p l a or p l b. Does this mean that p could divide a and b at the same time ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matt grime Posted July 27, 2006 Share Posted July 27, 2006 1. Makes no sense. Here's a guess: if f(x) is x+1 is not divisible by 4 and definitely has an integral root, whereas if f(x) is 4 then f is divisible by 4 and has no integer roots (consider it as the constant function). NB, functions don't have solutions, perhaps you could say what f is? 2. Of course. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Primarygun Posted July 27, 2006 Author Share Posted July 27, 2006 I'll read the question in the book which will be available for me tomorrow in library and tell you where I'd mistaken Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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