Sarahisme Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 Hello peoples, I think this is a trick question... well sort of for part (a) i get that the cosine Fourier Series for f(x) = cos(x) to be: i hope that is ok, but its part (b) that is troubling me... is all that happens as is that the cosine Fourier series of cos(x) goes to 0? i am guessing i am missing some trick to this question? Cheers! Sarah
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