Ferdinando Posted December 4, 2006 Posted December 4, 2006 Prove that for all positive x, y and z (x+y)^z + (y+z)^x + (z+x)^y > 2
the tree Posted December 4, 2006 Posted December 4, 2006 O.k., it isn't early in the morning this time, so I should be o.k. For extremely small values of x, y and z: (x+y)z + (y+z)x + (z+x)y is positive. As x,y or z tend to toward infinity, the whole function also does. Now how to write that formally, is beyond me.
uncool Posted December 10, 2006 Posted December 10, 2006 Clearly, all 3 have to be less than 1. Then, at least two of them must be less than 1/2, as otherwise we have 1 + (1/2)^y + (1/2)^z where y, z < 1. Let y, z < 1/2. That should start off the problem...
chemhelper Posted January 9, 2007 Posted January 9, 2007 Presume that x,y and z are infinitesimally small. Essentially, you will get 0^0 + 0^0 + 0^0. Any quanity, regardless of what it is, raised to the zero power is equal to one by definition. Thus, you will have 1 + 1 + 1 > 2 when x,y,z > 0 This is a basic idea but I'm not certain if it is the actual proof ----- Have homework questions in math, physics or chemistry? Who Likes Homework -- http://www.wholikeshomework.com
Ragib Posted January 11, 2007 Posted January 11, 2007 Omfg, Fun with ALGEBRA? For a formal proof you need 3 dimensional calculus...at least the proof i can think ok...
sinisterwolf Posted January 13, 2007 Posted January 13, 2007 Prove that for all positive x, y and z (x+y)^z + (y+z)^x + (z+x)^y > 2 Hmmm...I can prove this wrong right now... 3([(0.1)+(0.1)]^2)=0.12<2 reword this and maybe it will work....well work gor a 100% if reworded properly
Ragib Posted January 13, 2007 Posted January 13, 2007 I don't think that is correct sinisterwolf, can you give me your values for x y and z seperately? That doesn't look right..
sinisterwolf Posted January 30, 2007 Posted January 30, 2007 I don't think that is correct sinisterwolf, can you give me your values for x y and z seperately? That doesn't look right.. Yeah sorry about that I didnt take a really hard look at that and i thougt that it said "[(x+y)^z]+[(x+y)^z]+[(x+y)^z]" sorry about that I should have taken a better look before i jumped at it.... "make sure brain is running before you engage the mouth" is somthing I hear a lot. But I'll work on this a little bit and come back to try again. Question does x,y and z have to have three seperate values?
Ragib Posted January 30, 2007 Posted January 30, 2007 Well it says it has to be proven for all positive values, and I can't say the answers have to be the same, so I would assume they can be separate values.
daniel_haxby Posted January 30, 2007 Posted January 30, 2007 How about this: [math]x,y,z = 1 [/math] implies [math]2+2+2 > 2[/math] [math]x,y,z > 1 [/math] implies [math]f(x,y,z) > 2[/math] Ok, now let [math]x,y,z = 1/N; N \in R^+[/math] implies [math]f(x,y,z) = 3(2/N)^{1/N}[/math] Now, [math](2/N)^{1/N} > 2/3[/math] for [math]N > 1[/math], so [math]f(x,y,z) > 2[/math] for all [math]x=y=z[/math]. Then, whatever [math]x,y,z[/math], pick [math]N[/math] such that [math]1/N < min\{x,y,z\}[/math]. We know [math]2 < f(1/N,1/N,1/N) < f(x,y,z)[/math] QED
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now