CPL.Luke Posted December 21, 2006 Posted December 21, 2006 why is the spherical volume element r^2 sin phi dr d phi d theta ? and not r^2 dr dphi d theta ? it doesn' make sense to me as r theta is the arc length in a circle and so r^2 theta x phi should give the area element for a sphere, and then why not just allow for an infinitesimal amount of depth with dr and then declare that the volume element? also why is the angle phi drawn off the z axis and not the x axis like theta is?
D H Posted December 22, 2006 Posted December 22, 2006 An easy way to visualize why [math]dV = r^2\, \sin\phi\,dr\,d\phi\,d\theta[/math] is to look at a globe of the Earth. A line of latitude is the set of points with constant r and phi. The arc length of a line of latitude varies with the latitude: [math]l=2\pi\,R_e \sin(\frac{\pi}2-\phi^\prime)[/math] where [math]\phi^\prime[/math] is the latitude. Denoting [math]\phi=\frac{\pi}2-\phi^\prime[/math] yields [math]l=2\pi\,R_e\,\sin\phi[/math] A small portion of this arc has length [math]dl=R_e sin\phi\,d\theta[/math] Replace the line of latitude with a thin band with angular deflection [math]d\phi[/math]. The area of a small chunk of this band is [math]dA=R_e^{\,2} sin\phi\,d\theta\,d\phi[/math] Now extend the band to the center of the Earth. The volume of a small chunk of this conical volume is [math]dV=r^2 sin \phi \, d \theta \, d\phi \, dr[/math]
CPL.Luke Posted December 22, 2006 Author Posted December 22, 2006 but wouldn't rsin phi be a line parrelel to the x axis going from some point p to the z axis? I think my main problem with this is that for arc length I think theta * R, and so if you think of the plane formed by the z and x axeses, then the arc length should be given by r phi.
D H Posted December 22, 2006 Posted December 22, 2006 but wouldn't rsin phi be a line parrelel to the x axis going from some point p to the z axis? I don't know quite what you mean by this. I think my main problem with this is that for arc length I think theta * R, and so if you think of the plane formed by the z and x axeses, then the arc length should be given by r phi. That works in two dimensions, but not in three. What is the radius [math]r[/math]? Look at a globe of the Earth (or do it in your head if you don't have a globe). Each line of constant latitude is a circle. The circles are tiny near the poles and become a great circle at the equator. What is the radius of the circle at latitude [math]\delta[/math] (colatitude [math]\phi=90^{\circ}-\delta[/math])?
CPL.Luke Posted December 22, 2006 Author Posted December 22, 2006 That works in two dimensions, but not in three. What is the radius ? Look at a globe of the Earth (or do it in your head if you don't have a globe). Each line of constant latitude is a circle. The circles are tiny near the poles and become a great circle at the equator. What is the radius of the circle at latitude (colatitude )? ah now I get it thank you. that also explains why the angle is drawn off the z axis towards the xy plane instead of from the xy plane towards the z axis. awesome thankyou.
ajb Posted January 5, 2007 Posted January 5, 2007 Calculate the Jacobian factor when changing from cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates and you will get the factors you desire.
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