the tree Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 Given that [math]I_n = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^n \sin(x)\cdot dx[/math] Show that, for [math]x \ge 2[/math]: [math]I_n = \left (\frac{\pi}{2} \right )-n(n-1)I_{n-2}[/math] Okay if that were an indefinite integral then I'd be happy to say that [math]I_n = -x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}[/math] but processing just that as a definite integral, [math][-x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}]_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}[/math], causes the [math]I[/math] term to be canceled out and I am nowhere near what I am trying to prove. So what do I do?
Tom Mattson Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 Okay if that were an indefinite integral then I'd be happy to say that [math]I_n = -x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}[/math] but processing just that as a definite integral, [math][-x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}]_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}[/math], causes the [math]I[/math] term to be canceled out Say what? The [math]I[/math] term does not cancel out. And you don't get [math]I_{n-1}[/math] after integrating by parts once. That's because you get a cosine (not a sine) in the integrand after doing it once. You have to integrate by parts twice to get back to the sine function.
Dave Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 Given that [math]I_n = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x^n \sin(x)\cdot dx[/math] Show that, for [math]x \ge 2[/math]: [math]I_n = \left (\frac{\pi}{2} \right )-n(n-1)I_{n-2}[/math] Okay if that were an indefinite integral then I'd be happy to say that [math]I_n = -x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}[/math] but processing just that as a definite integral, [math][-x^{n}\cos{x}-n I_{n-1}]_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}[/math], causes the [math]I[/math] term to be canceled out and I am nowhere near what I am trying to prove. So what do I do? It doesn't quite work like that: [math]\int_a^b uv' \, dx = [uv]_a^b - \int_a^b u'v\, dx[/math]
the tree Posted May 18, 2007 Author Posted May 18, 2007 you get a cosine (not a sine) in the integrand after doing it once. You have to integrate by parts twice to get back to the sine function.Taking [math]\int \underbrace{x^{n}}_u \underbrace{\sin{x}}_{v'} \cdot dx[/math], we get [math]-x^{n} \cos{x} - \int nx^{n-1} \sin{x} \cdot dx[/math]You would get a cosing in the integrand if you'd started the other way around though. It doesn't quite work like thatThanks, now I should be able to do this.
MolotovCocktail Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 `Deleted`. I had an example, but somebody beat me to it.
Tom Mattson Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 Taking [math]\int \underbrace{x^{n}}_u \underbrace{\sin{x}}_{v'} \cdot dx[/math], we get [math]-x^{n} \cos{x} - \int nx^{n-1} \sin{x} \cdot dx[/math] Nope. [math]v^{\prime}[/math] does not appear in the right hand side of the formula for integration by parts.
Dave Posted May 18, 2007 Posted May 18, 2007 Taking [math]\int \underbrace{x^{n}}_u \underbrace{\sin{x}}_{v'} \cdot dx[/math], we get [math]-x^{n} \cos{x} - \int nx^{n-1} \sin{x} \cdot dx[/math] I'm pretty sure the second integral is wrong there. (It should be [math]u'v[/math] and you have [math]u'v'[/math]).
the tree Posted May 18, 2007 Author Posted May 18, 2007 I'm pretty sure the second integral is wrong there. (It should be [math]u'v[/math] and you have [math]u'v'[/math]).DAMMIT! Thanks for pointing that one out (both Dave and Tom).
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