A Fool Posted June 10, 2007 Posted June 10, 2007 It's a Basic Question and therefore should be asked if other things are built upon it. why is a negative times a negative a positive and a negative times a positive a negative and similarily for division? If i missed something basic back in grade 3 please be gentle thanks, A Fool
the tree Posted June 10, 2007 Posted June 10, 2007 Multiplying a number by -1, if you try to imagine it visually, reflects the number about the 0 on the number line. As you'll know if you've done some geometry, reflecting something about the same point twice, leaves it as it is.
cosine Posted June 11, 2007 Posted June 11, 2007 Hm, thats the first time I've heard it explained that way tree, I like it! An algebraic way of looking at it could go this way: For a positive*negative, multiplication is defined as addition of one number, summing with itself the number of times as the other number. So (-1)*a = -1 + -1 + -1... a times. For neg*neg here is a proof by contradiction: assume (-a)*(-b) =/= a*b then (-a)*(-b) - a*b =/= 0 so (-a)*(-b) + (-a)*b =/= 0 by the distributive law (-a)(-b + b) =/= 0 (-a)(0) = 0 =/= 0 is a contradiction. Therefore (-a)*(-b) = a*b And division works the same way because division is just multiplication by a multiplicative inverse, which has the same sign.
Tom Mattson Posted June 11, 2007 Posted June 11, 2007 Here's another proof, not by contradiction. Let [math]a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}[/math]. Proposition 1 [math]a+c=b+c[/math] implies [math]a=b[/math]. (Actually this could be an "iff" statement, but I don't need the converse to get to what I want.) Proof [math]a+c=b+c[/math] (by hypothesis) [math](a+c)+(-c)=(b+c)+(-c)[/math] (add [math]-c[/math] to both sides) [math]a+(c+(-c))=b+(c+(-c))[/math] (by associativity under addition) [math]a+0=b+0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math]a=b[/math] (by the additive identity property) Proposition 2 [math]0a=a0=0[/math] Proof [math]a0+0=a(0+0)[/math] (by the additive identity property) [math]a0+0=a0+a0[/math] (by the left distributive property) [math]0=a0[/math] (by proposition 1) [math]0=0a[/math] (by commutativity under multiplication) Proposition 3 [math](-a)b=-(ab)[/math] Proof [math]a+(-a)=0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math](a+(-a))b=0b[/math] (multiply both sides by [math]b[/math]) [math]ab+(-a)b=0b[/math] (by the right distributive property) [math]ab+(-a)b=0[/math] (by proposition 2) [math](-a)b=(-ab)[/math] (by the additive inverse property) Proposition 4 [math](-a)(-b)=ab[/math] Proof [math]a+(-a)=0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math](a+(-a))(-b)=0(-b)[/math] (multiply both sides by [math](-b)[/math]) [math]a(-b)+(-a)(-b)=0(-b)[/math] (by the right distributive property) [math]a(-b)+(-a)(-b)=0[/math] (by proposition 2) [math]-ab+(-a)(-b)=0[/math] (by proposition 3) [math](-a)(-b)=ab[/math] (by the additive inverse property) Note: At the end of the proofs for Propositions 3 and 4, I relied on the fact that the additive structure of a field is a group, and that every element in a group has a unique inverse element. 1
A Fool Posted June 12, 2007 Author Posted June 12, 2007 How very thouroughly enlightening thank you very much!
cosine Posted June 12, 2007 Posted June 12, 2007 Here's another proof, not by contradiction. Let [math]a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}[/math]. Proposition 1 [math]a+c=b+c[/math] implies [math]a=b[/math]. (Actually this could be an "iff" statement, but I don't need the converse to get to what I want.) Proof [math]a+c=b+c[/math] (by hypothesis) [math](a+c)+(-c)=(b+c)+(-c)[/math] (add [math]-c[/math] to both sides) [math]a+(c+(-c))=b+(c+(-c))[/math] (by associativity under addition) [math]a+0=b+0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math]a=b[/math] (by the additive identity property) Proposition 2 [math]0a=a0=0[/math] Proof [math]a0+0=a(0+0)[/math] (by the additive identity property) [math]a0+0=a0+a0[/math] (by the left distributive property) [math]0=a0[/math] (by proposition 1) [math]0=0a[/math] (by commutativity under multiplication) Proposition 3 [math](-a)b=-(ab)[/math] Proof [math]a+(-a)=0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math](a+(-a))b=0b[/math] (multiply both sides by [math]b[/math]) [math]ab+(-a)b=0b[/math] (by the right distributive property) [math]ab+(-a)b=0[/math] (by proposition 2) [math](-a)b=(-ab)[/math] (by the additive inverse property) Proposition 4 [math](-a)(-b)=ab[/math] Proof [math]a+(-a)=0[/math] (by the additive inverse property) [math](a+(-a))(-b)=0(-b)[/math] (multiply both sides by [math](-b)[/math]) [math]a(-b)+(-a)(-b)=0(-b)[/math] (by the right distributive property) [math]a(-b)+(-a)(-b)=0[/math] (by proposition 2) [math]-ab+(-a)(-b)=0[/math] (by proposition 3) [math](-a)(-b)=ab[/math] (by the additive inverse property) Note: At the end of the proofs for Propositions 3 and 4, I relied on the fact that the additive structure of a field is a group, and that every element in a group has a unique inverse element. Didn't all of your proofs rely on the converse of proposition 1 at some point?
Tom Mattson Posted June 12, 2007 Posted June 12, 2007 Yes, I supposed they do. But I immediately have the converse from the definitions of addition and of equality. If [math]a=b[/math], then I have: [math]a+c=a+c[/math] (tautology) [math]a+c=b+c[/math] (substitution) So there we have the converse, and everything is now logically closed.
bombus Posted June 12, 2007 Posted June 12, 2007 Multiplying a number by -1, if you try to imagine it visually, reflects the number about the 0 on the number line.As you'll know if you've done some geometry, reflecting something about the same point twice, leaves it as it is. Great explanation. Now I geddit!
cosine Posted June 13, 2007 Posted June 13, 2007 Yes, I supposed they do. But I immediately have the converse from the definitions of addition and of equality. If [math]a=b[/math], then I have: [math]a+c=a+c[/math] (tautology) [math]a+c=b+c[/math] (substitution) So there we have the converse, and everything is now logically closed. Nice!
uncool Posted August 30, 2007 Posted August 30, 2007 Tom - not quite; substitution isn't quite an axiom. However, the converse that you're stating actually itself is an axiom - the axiom of well-definedness, isn't it? =Uncool-
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