CanadaAotS Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 I was chatting away on a gaming server, minding my own business, when a guy in the channel mentions, "So, I can disprove movement." I was skeptical to say the least. But when he finished I was amazed... He actually disproved movement xD Anyway it goes like this. To go from point A to point B, assuming A =/= B, you'll have to go through a point C. Let's say C is halfway between A and B. What's halfway between those 2 new points? And half way between that? And that? Essentially, it's impossible to move in any direction. How about that? I understand where this is coming from. Movement is essentially time moving through 3 dimensional space. And imo it's just a construct of our minds. We percieve time... But yeah, if this little proof isn't correct, could someone tell me where it goes wrong? And if it doesn't, does that mean that it disproves time as well?
Edtharan Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 To go from point A to point B, assuming A =/= B, you'll have to go through a point C.Let's say C is halfway between A and B. What's halfway between those 2 new points? And half way between that? And that? Essentially, it's impossible to move in any direction. That is Zeno's Paradox and it has been around for over 2,000 years. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zeno%27s_paradox
ydoaPs Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 Zeno's paradoxes are crap. For Zeno's paradox to work, your gait would have to half every time you take a step. A person walking, for instance, has a relatively constant gait.
Severian Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 This is Zeno's paradox. Not exactly original.... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zeno's_paradoxes Edit: bah - that will teach me to open a thread, so away for a few minutes and them reply without rechecking the thread to see if anyone has posted.
CanadaAotS Posted October 12, 2007 Author Posted October 12, 2007 I assumed the guy that told me about didn't make it up. Haha. I just never heard of it before. Pretty interesting, and yourdad, the proof hinges on the fact that movement is a function, aka continuous. So to get from point a to point b, if a and b aren't equal you HAVE to go through some point c. Doesn't matter if c is halfway between a and b, in fact it can be anywhere between the two points.
ydoaPs Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 I assumed the guy that told me about didn't make it up. Haha. I just never heard of it before. Pretty interesting, and yourdad, the proof hinges on the fact that movement is a function, aka continuous. So to get from point a to point b, if a and b aren't equal you HAVE to go through some point c. Doesn't matter if c is halfway between a and b, in fact it can be anywhere between the two points. And in one step, you can go through a, b, and c. If one were to travel as in Zeno's "Paradox", then one would be slowing down until they are motionless. That just isn't how motion occurs.
CanadaAotS Posted October 12, 2007 Author Posted October 12, 2007 Yeah. That's what's interesting about it... According to this proof we shouldn't be able to move at all. Continuous movement is impossible... however we manage it everyday That's why it's a paradox. lol.
Mr Skeptic Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 I prefer to turn Zeno's Paradox backwards. To get from a to b, you need to first get half way there. To get half way there, you first need to get a quarter of the way there. To get a quarter of the way there, you first need to get an eighth of the way there... Which just goes to show that if there are an infinite number of points between a and b, you can easily move through an infinite number of points in a finite amount of time. Nevermind, that is the way it was originally stated, I just heard it backward before.
CanadaAotS Posted October 12, 2007 Author Posted October 12, 2007 Yeah. The fact that you can move through an infinite amount of points in a finite time seems strange. lol. -my mind... hurts...- =_= haha.
ydoaPs Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 Then don't try calculus. You add up an infinite number of rectangles to get a finite area.
CanadaAotS Posted October 12, 2007 Author Posted October 12, 2007 Yeah. I've taken calculus actually haha.
ydoaPs Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 Then it should be no surprise that you can subdivide a finite distance into an infinite number of points. That is all Zeno's "Paradox" is.
Mr Skeptic Posted October 12, 2007 Posted October 12, 2007 Yeah. I've taken calculus actually haha. Then consider [math]v = \frac{dx}{dt}[/math], the instantaneous velocity. This is opposed to Zeno's idea that at any instant in time, an object is motionless.
Fred56 Posted October 13, 2007 Posted October 13, 2007 Isn't falling into a black hole a bit like Zeno's "paradox"? I mean the matter isn't supposed to be able to accelerate past c? But it does, or something.
D H Posted October 13, 2007 Posted October 13, 2007 Matter does not accelerate past c to enter a black hole. Once inside, it has to go faster than the speed of light to get out.
alan2here Posted October 17, 2007 Posted October 17, 2007 Sorry to disappoint you guys, but reality is analogue not digital. It's unfortunately not a computer simulation.
Sisyphus Posted October 17, 2007 Posted October 17, 2007 "Infinitely divisible" is not the same as "an infinite quantity." You could divide the distance again and again indefinitely, but distance itself is not inherently a divided thing. It's a continuous and finite quantity.
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