ed84c Posted November 7, 2007 Share Posted November 7, 2007 Question: Find a Maclaurin approximation to calculate [math] \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} [/math] so I go for the M.A of [math] {e}^{-0.5x} [/math] which I have worked out to be [math] 1-0.5x+\frac{x^2}{2!}-\frac{0.5x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}-\frac{0.5x^5}{5!} [/math] But If I now dow f(1) it does not approximate [math] {e}^{-0.5x} [/math] (although it does around f(0)) Any help? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted November 7, 2007 Share Posted November 7, 2007 I've not worked it through, but how far from 0 does it give an approximate value? 1 might just be too far away Then you'd either have to use more terms, or a Taylor series around 1... also have you droped an x on the original term[math]\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}[/math]? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ed84c Posted November 7, 2007 Author Share Posted November 7, 2007 at 0.3 its 0.2 away. And no I didnt drop the x; that was the question. Maybe Im doing it the wrong way? This is only the first exersize in the chapter which does not go into taylor series'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted November 7, 2007 Share Posted November 7, 2007 are you sure e is exponential and it's not asking for an expansion of f(e)=f(x)=[math]\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}[/math] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ed84c Posted November 7, 2007 Author Share Posted November 7, 2007 OK i did it like that but it came out around 10? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Country Boy Posted November 10, 2007 Share Posted November 10, 2007 Question: Find a Maclaurin approximation to calculate [math] \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} [/math] so I go for the M.A of [math] {e}^{-0.5x} [/math] which I have worked out to be [math] 1-0.5x+\frac{x^2}{2!}-\frac{0.5x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}-\frac{0.5x^5}{5!} [/math] HOW did you get that? You seem to just have 0.5 times the MacLaurin coefficient of [math]e^x[/math] when n is odd, 1 times if n is even. If f(x)= [math]e^{-x/2}[/math] then f(0)= 1 as you have. f'x)= [math]-1/2 e^{-x/2}[/math] so f'(0)= -1/2 also as you have. f"(x)= [math]1/4 e^{-x/2}[/math] so f"(0)= 1/4 and the MacLaurin coefficient is (1/4)/2= 1/8, not at all what you have! In general the nth derivative of [math]e^{-x/2}[/math] is [math](-1)^nx^n/2^n[/math] and so the nth coefficient of the MacLaurin series is [math](-1)^n/(2^n n!)[/math]. You could also do that just by replacing x in the MacLaurin series for [math]e^x[/math] by -x/2: [math]x^n[/math] becomes [math](-1)^n x^n/2^n[/math]. In particular, taking x= 1, you should get [math]1/\sqrt{e}[/math] is approximately 1- 1/2+ 1/8- 1/48+ 1/384+ 1/3840= 0.6044, a pretty good approximation to [math]1/\sqrt{e}[/math] which is about 0.6053 But If I now dow f(1) it does not approximate [math] {e}^{-0.5x} [/math] (although it does around f(0)) Any help? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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