square173205 Posted November 9, 2007 Posted November 9, 2007 Is 1+1 always 2? I tried to prove that 1+1 is not always 2 with applying Goedel's incompleteness theorem as; http://hecoaustralia.fortunecity.com/incompleteness/incomplete.htm
insane_alien Posted November 9, 2007 Posted November 9, 2007 why not post it here instead of continually linking to your own site. also, if you used the search function you would find that we have been over this several times.
Klaynos Posted November 9, 2007 Posted November 9, 2007 Is the definition of 2 not that it is always 1+1?
uncool Posted November 9, 2007 Posted November 9, 2007 Is the definition of 2 not that it is always 1+1? Not always; in an axiomatic definition of the integers, you can prove that; it is defined in that case as the least integer greater than 1. =Uncool-
Country Boy Posted November 9, 2007 Posted November 9, 2007 And in what system is that not DEFINED as 2?
uncool Posted November 10, 2007 Posted November 10, 2007 And in what system is that not DEFINED as 2? 2 is sometimes defined as 1+1, and sometimes as the successor of 1. The two must be proven equivalent. Otherwise, I don't think I understand your question... =Uncool-
square173205 Posted November 10, 2007 Author Posted November 10, 2007 Is the definition of 2 not that it is always 1+1? Yes, it's a definition. But it might be necessary to verify that definition is well-defined. Otherwise we could define 1+1=3 (it's obviously not well-defined, though.)
DivideByZero Posted December 2, 2007 Posted December 2, 2007 I don't understand why one would assume 1 and 1 wont equal 2. If you have 1 apple and 1 plum, you have 2 fruits. I don't know.. maybe I'm overlooking something obvious. Btw this is my first post so Hello SFN!!
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now