Kedas Posted December 10, 2007 Posted December 10, 2007 If you have an ordered list of numbers and you randomly change them what is the chance that at least one number will stay on its previous position? Or more practically if you give everyone a number and you let them blindly pick a number. What is the chance that at least one persons picks his/her own number again.
Kedas Posted December 13, 2007 Author Posted December 13, 2007 It looks right for n=2 and n=3 but n=1 should be 1. and if n is very large than the change that at least one stays at its current position is very high. So if I have a cube of water and give it a good (random) shake. Then I can say it is very likely that at least one molecule arrived on it's previous position. That sounds a bit weird?
Tartaglia Posted December 13, 2007 Posted December 13, 2007 The working is Prob(>= 1) = 1 -P(0) = 1 - (n-1!/n!) = 1 - (1/n) for n> 1 In the case of n = 1, P(>= 1) = 1 - 0/1 = 1. The failure comes from definition of 0! = 1
Kedas Posted December 13, 2007 Author Posted December 13, 2007 Thanks for the explanation 1-((n-1)!/n!) looks more right because it doesn't look too simple
uncool Posted December 14, 2007 Posted December 14, 2007 Not quite - P(0) is not (n-1)!/n!. For example, P(0) for 4 is 3/8, not 1/4. The actual answer is: 1/1! - 1/2! + ... + (-1)^(n - 1)/n! (iirc). See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derangement =Uncool-
Tartaglia Posted December 15, 2007 Posted December 15, 2007 Quite right uncool - I do apologise. I didn't consider that there are two types of numbers after one has been chosen.Those whose positions are taken and those whose positions aren't
Kedas Posted December 17, 2007 Author Posted December 17, 2007 Thanks uncool. My weird 'feeling' example feels much more right now
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now