DivideByZero Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 How did mathematicians come up with Area of circle = ( pi * r^2 ) ? Why did they choose r^2 as one of the products? Was pi found by brute forcing numbers until it worked? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhDP Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 r². The 2 comes from the fact that we're looking for something in two dimension; an area. The formula for the perimeter is 2pi*r (one dimension = r^1), the volume of the sphere is (4/3)pi*r³ (3 dimensions), et cetera... And yes, pi can only be found by brute force. It's an irrational number, it can't be described by any fraction A/B. If I remember correctly, the first 'good' values of pi were found using polygons. For example, if you inscribe a triangle in a circle, you will get a pretty bad estimate of the area of the circle, if you inscribe a square, it's a little better, so by inscribing regular polygons with an increasingly large number of sides, you'll get a better estimate of pi. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
YT2095 Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 I rem someone telling me that 22/7 was used for the longest time as Pi. I don`t how historically accurate that is though? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 How did mathematicians come up with Area of circle = ( pi * r^2 ) ? This page explains it fairly well. It'll become gradually clearer the more you work with limits. Why did they choose r^2 as one of the products?"they" didn't, it just is. Was pi found by brute forcing numbers until it worked?You can get a fairly good approximation of π by drawing a circle and measuring out it's circumference with a bit of string, the practical method would have been the first approach. Archimedes drew regular polygons on the inside and outside of circles to get a range that π would fall into, the more sides the polygons had the smaller the range, he apparently calculated by hand for 92-gons to determine that 310⁄71< π < 31⁄7[Numerical Approximations of π - Wikipedia]. Since π has been studied so extensively, there are a lot of ways of calculating it, one of the most elegant (by no means the most efficient) has to be this sequence by Leibniz: [math]1 - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{5} - \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{9} - \frac{1}{11} + \cdots = \frac{\pi}{4}[/math] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
YT2095 Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 aha, turns out what I heard is indeed correct: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_22/7_exceeds_%CF%80 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bignose Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 There are many ways, but always liked the conversion from Cartesian to cylindrical coordinates: [math]dxdy = rdrd\theta[/math] To find the area of a space, you integrate over the limits of the space. In Cartesian coordinates, the limit is described by [math]x^2 + y^2 = R[/math], but in cylindrical coordinates, the equation of the circle is much simpler: [math] r = R[/math] So, in cylindrical coordinates: [math] A = \int^{2\pi}_0\int^R_0 rdrd\theta = \pi r^2[/math] You get a completely analogous result in spherical coordinates in 3-D: [math]V = \int^{\pi}_0\int^{2\pi}_0\int^R_0 r^2 \sin\theta drd\theta d\phi = \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3[/math] The conversions from coordinate systems completely take care of themselves. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Country Boy Posted May 1, 2008 Share Posted May 1, 2008 Why did they choose r^2 as one of the products? "they" didn't' date=' it just is.[/quote'] That's not true. The area could as easily be written A= pi*d^2/4. Using the radius instead of the diameter is a CHOICE. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted May 2, 2008 Share Posted May 2, 2008 That's not true. The area could as easily be written A= pi*d^2/4. Using the radius instead of the diameter is a CHOICE.Barglefarglebleh *stomps feet* you knew what I meant. A=pi*r^2 is still the area of a circle whether you use it or not. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DivideByZero Posted May 2, 2008 Author Share Posted May 2, 2008 Thanks a lot for the replies! Is is possible to find the area of the circle without pi? like creating infinite triangles from the center to a part of the circumference and using limits to solve it? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Royston Posted May 2, 2008 Share Posted May 2, 2008 Thanks a lot for the replies! Is is possible to find the area of the circle without pi? like creating infinite triangles from the center to a part of the circumference and using limits to solve it? Well yes, that's essentially what Archimedes did, but without the integration. I guess you could use [math]\frac{C}{d}[/math] but that equals [math]\pi[/math] anyway. This may help... http://documents.wolfram.com/mathematica/Demos/Notebooks/CalculatingPi.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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