esmeco Posted July 20, 2008 Share Posted July 20, 2008 Given z=f(x,y), how would I go about finding the inverse function(range) like it was done for f(x)=y,when f(x)=x^2-1 ,for example,we would put x^2-1=y and solve for x? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Country Boy Posted July 21, 2008 Share Posted July 21, 2008 Given z=f(x,y), how would I go about finding the inverse function(range) like it was done for f(x)=y,when f(x)=x^2-1 ,for example,we would put x^2-1=y and solve for x? I don't know what you mean by "inverse function (range)" since "inverse function" and "range" are very different things. In general, functions of two variables do not have inverse functions since they are seldom "one to one". Finding the range of a function of two variables depends strongly on exactly what the function is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
prometeu Posted July 24, 2008 Share Posted July 24, 2008 Inverse and range of a function are different things. Inverse functions existe in more than one variable and are in general far more complicated or impossible to find. The range of a function in more than two variables are functions of the other variables. Example: f(x,y)=log(x+y), for x=8 we find y=(-8,+inf). The range function is x+y>0, so x>-y and y>-x. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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