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Virtual Particle's Violate Causality?


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Posted

do they violate causality since they travel faster than light and violate conservation?

Posted

They do not obey the energy-momentum relation that a free particle of the respective field would have.

Posted

No.

 

Interestingly in Quantum Field Theory you can show that particles with positive energy always must move forwards in time in order to preserve causality. This seems fair enough, but perhaps more oddly, you can also show that particles of negative energy must flow backwards in time to preserve causality (weird huh?).

 

This is actually where antiparticles come from since a negative energy particle moving backwards in time is actually identical to a positive energy antiparticle moving forwards in time. This is called the Feynman-Stueckleberg interpretation.

Posted (edited)

so what is really going back in time? this is what confuses me with anti particle and particle time travel,back in time sort of thing.

Edited by ps3
Posted

i read that virtual particle's CAN travel faster than light,because of the uncertainty principle?

Posted

All of it falls within the bounds of the uncertainty principle. Virtual particles can violate rules all they want as long as they don't get caught, so to speak. :P Regarding causality, information isn't transmitted at superluminal speeds even by virtual particles with negative energies as noted by Severian.

Posted

No. Virtual particles have normal mass. Theoretically, particles with imaginary (in the mathematical sense) mass can (called "tachyons").

Posted

 

First link: you misread it. "The virtual particle didn't "transmit" any information that I didn't have already; it is useless as a means of faster-than-light communication." That translates as: doesn't violate causality.

 

Second Link:

"First off a disclaimer: I'm not a particle physicist, and although I have a basic understanding of Quantum Field Theory, I can by no means claim to be an expert on virtual particles"

 

The "violation" he then quotes is the HUP.

Posted
so it can last infinitly?

 

It can last as near to infinity as the particle's energy is near zero.

 

[math]\Delta E \Delta t \leq \hbar[/math] Where [math]E[/math] is energy, [math]t[/math] is duration, and [math]\hbar[/math] is Dirac's constant.

Posted

The probability of decay is proportional to the Breit-Wigner distribution:

 

[math]\frac{m \Gamma}{\left(E^2-|\vec{p}|^2-m^2 \right)^2 + m^2 \Gamma^2}[/math]

 

where [math]\Gamma[/math] is the particle width and I have neglected the [math]c[/math]'s.

Posted
The probability of decay is proportional to the Breit-Wigner distribution:

 

[math]\frac{m \Gamma}{\left(E^2-|\vec{p}|^2-m^2 \right)^2 + m^2 \Gamma^2}[/math]

 

where [math]\Gamma[/math] is the particle width and I have neglected the [math]c[/math]'s.

 

what does this all mean?

 

i was told by a friend that causality is violated but since we can't see it happening it cannot affect us.is this true?

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