north Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 north, you make no sense. You are using arbitrary meanings to well defined definitions and then expect everyone to agree with your logic. Movement is well defined. English language is well defined, too. my point is , is that you don't have to refine movement to relise that a movement has happened and therefore makes time irrelevent take the tortise and a Human and both must go from A to B , the quicker wins , no abnormalites exist within the Human or tortise nor on the course , everything is fair and on the up and up obviously the Human gets there first , all things being equal No offense, north, but maybe the problem is with your (nonexistent) sentence structures. I don't understand what you mean, and I don't get your points. You made points based on flawed definitions and now you seem to insist they're still valid.. I don't understand any of your subsequent points. Since you're the one making the claim, it should be your concern to make sure people get what you mean. In other words: You're the one responsible in making yourself clear if you want anyone to accept what you're saying, not the other way around, since you're the one CLAIMING these things. I'm sorry, but I don't even know how to start answering your points, since I don't get what you're trying to say. ~moo then try one point at a time
mooeypoo Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 my point is , is that you don't have to refine movement to relise that a movement has happened and therefore makes time irrelevent Without time there's no movement. Movement occurs when an object has a change of position over time. How can you have that change of position without time? You make no sense, and you are trying - again - to redefine a WELL DEFINED term. take the tortise and a Human and both must go from A to B , the quicker wins , no abnormalites exist within the Human or tortise nor on the course , everything is fair and on the up and up obviously the Human gets there first , all things being equal Right, the human has longer legs, and therefore faster velocity, and will get there faster. Velocity is movement. And check this out: [math]V = \frac{dx}{dt}[/math] Velocity is defined as the change of location (dx) in relation to time (dt)! so there *IS* a consideration of time there, isn't there? then try one point at a time I - and others - did. We just refuted you. Perhaps you should try one refutation at a time.
north Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 Without time there's no movement. Movement occurs when an object has a change of position over time. How can you have that change of position without time? You make no sense, and you are trying - again - to redefine a WELL DEFINED term. Right, the human has longer legs, and therefore faster velocity, and will get there faster. Velocity is movement. And check this out: [math]V = \frac{dx}{dt}[/math] Velocity is defined as the change of location (dx) in relation to time (dt)! so there *IS* a consideration of time there, isn't there? and if I didn't consider or measure any of what you mention here would not the out-come still be the same ? yes it would , my point , AGAIN
mooeypoo Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 (edited) Without time there's no movement. Movement occurs when an object has a change of position over time. How can you have that change of position without time? You make no sense, and you are trying - again - to redefine a WELL DEFINED term. and if I didn't consider or measure any of what you mention here would not the out-come still be the same ? yes it would , my point , AGAIN If you didn't measure or consider anything, it wouldn't happen. If it happened, it happened in relation to time. Your point is void. Edited May 4, 2009 by mooeypoo Consecutive posts merged.
swansont Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 you can't use time and time alone , to influence any physical dynamic behaviour of any object within or any interactions between objects You can't use length and length alone to influence any physical dynamic behaviour of any object within or any interactions between objects. So? I await your argument that length is not real. Merged post follows: Consecutive posts merged an atomic clock is based on movement within the atomics of the atoms in the clock , which you base the clock on why would you try to even remove movement from the atomic clock ? it is the movement within say a ciesium clock that gives consistent time , hence why it is used All this does is reflect your lack of understanding of quantum mechanics and atomic clocks. Simply asserting or denying that something is true does not make it so.
Klaynos Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 I can define time without using movement. This is done in atomic clocks. There is NO movement of any type in an ideal clock. I cannot define movement without using the concept of time. There is always a starting position and a final position, these two positions are not both true at the start so there must be something between the two, this is time. Therefore movement requires time, but time does not require movement.
Vortigon Posted May 4, 2009 Posted May 4, 2009 What would be pulling the particles apart? That's not part of any cosmology scenario of which I am aware. Apologies I neglected to mention that was based on the 'big rip' theory. Not proven of course and may be unlikely. Based on the idea of increased acceleration of the Universe's expansion rate, eventually reaching a point where atoms themselves are pulled apart. Big thing to leave out I know lol
north Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 Originally Posted by north Originally Posted by mooeypoo Without time there's no movement. Movement occurs when an object has a change of position over time. How can you have that change of position without time? You make no sense, and you are trying - again - to redefine a WELL DEFINED term. and if I didn't consider or measure any of what you mention here would not the out-come still be the same ? yes it would , my point , AGAIN If you didn't measure or consider anything, it wouldn't happen. If it happened, it happened in relation to time. Your point is void. really so if I let two tires roll down a hill ( and they were let go at the same moment), and one tire passes the other its about time ?
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 really so if I let two tires roll down a hill ( and they were let go at the same moment), and one tire passes the other its about time ? WHAT!? I can't predict what will happen without knowing more about the tires, the environment, the slope of the hill, or whether or not the slope and environment is consistent. For that matter, if both tires are pushed down an EQUAL SETTINGS, then they will both reach the bottom at the EXACT same time. The problem in reality is that there's no such thing "equal settings" (or at least, it's hard to create/find) and therefore the two tires are likely to not reach the bottom together. HOWEVER -- that *proves* that the differences are dependent on the environment, and have NOTHING to do with time. What are you babbling about? You make no sense. Your question is as logical as me asking "If I push two people down a hole but hold one of them with a rope, is it about time?" What does anything have to do with anything? You're either grapping at straws to insist your theory must be correct, or you seriously need to step back, figure out a way to make sense of your sentences, and post only after they are logical. This is ridiculous. ~moo
north Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 Time was created by humans. agreed the problem becomes when some people think that time actually has some sort of substance associated with it which is wrong of course , but mathematical physics does this , unfortunately
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 If it's wrong, prove it wrong. If you can't prove it wrong, then until you can, you're wrong. It's really that simple.
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 prove it right. I wasn't the one who made the claim, north did, and as such, he has the obligation to prove his claim. He tried in the past few pages of this thread. Unsuccessfully. johnnny, I think you should refer to our rules of conduct. Welcome to the forum.
Cap'n Refsmmat Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 You're supposed to support your positions with evidence.
north Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 If it's wrong, prove it wrong. If you can't prove it wrong, then until you can, you're wrong. It's really that simple. okay here goes ; if the change in time is made in the mathematical equation , will this change alone influence the physical dynamics of a situation ? inotherwords the change in the equation comes before the physical change
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 okay here goes ; if the change in time is made in the mathematical equation , will this change alone influence the physical dynamics of a situation ? I don't know what you're saying. North, I'm not trying to be hard here, I rteally don't get your question. give an example of an equation, maybe? Basically, if an equation is dependant on time, then a change in time will change the result - it will not change the other variables, unless the variables are themselves dependent on time. For example, you can have an equation that has time *and* acceleration in it, but since acceleration itself is dependent on time (a= dv/dt) the variable of acceleration will also change according to time. If you have variables that do not depend on time, they will not change if you change time. It's.. math.. inotherwords the change in the equation comes before the physical change No, the change in the equation *represents* the physical change.
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 well mooeypoo ? Calm down, this isn't a chat room, it's a forum.
north Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 (edited) inotherwords the change in the equation comes before the physical change No, the change in the equation *represents* the physical change. exactly so that the equation is based on the physical dynamics , not on time time in the equation is a consequence of physical dynamics just simply changing time in the equation means nothing Edited May 11, 2009 by north
mooeypoo Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 exactly so that the equation is based on the physical dynamics , not on time It has physical dynamics in it, and it has time in it, so it is based on both.
johnnny92008 Posted May 11, 2009 Posted May 11, 2009 what if you did not time it? you just let it roll.
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