bob000555 Posted May 2, 2009 Share Posted May 2, 2009 (edited) Let's say we define a set [math]S[/math] in the following manner. [math] 0 < S_0 < 1 [/math] [math] S_n = (1-S_{n-1})^x[/math] If we take the example [math]S_0 = \frac{1}{2}[/math] and [math]x = 3[/math] then the set apears to not converge and to follow no set pateren, is this chaos? Edited May 3, 2009 by bob000555 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bignose Posted May 3, 2009 Share Posted May 3, 2009 I doesn't appear to converge in that it is tending toward a single number, but it is a converging oscillation between 0 and 1. This isn't chaos in a proper mathematical term. Chaos mathematically is when a small change in inputs makes dramatic changes in outputs. E.g. consider some function f(x) If f(1.0)= 10 most functions behave reasonably well in that f(1.0001) = something like 10.04 or 9.95 or even just 11 or 9. and f(1.0002) would then be 10.1 or 9.9 etc. A chaotic function would be something like f(1.0) = 10, f(1.0001) = -765.9, f(1.0002) = 387.9, f(1.0003) = 22.8, f(1.0004) = -98.11, etc. Where a very small change in input leads to a very large change in output. This is almost exclusively due to nonlinearity of the function (I don't know of a single linear chaotic example). This is a decent article: http://www.imho.com/grae/chaos/chaos.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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