Dave Posted May 31, 2004 Posted May 31, 2004 A pretty easy one just for kicks, and it's a fairly standard proof. Prove that [math]e^{i\theta} = \cos(\theta) + i\sin(\theta)[/math] and hence show [math]e^{\pi i} = -1[/math] (for the more adventurous, try showing [math](\cos(\theta) + i \sin(\theta))^n = \cos(n\theta) + i\sin(n\theta)[/math]).
Dave Posted May 31, 2004 Author Posted May 31, 2004 Just to give you a little hint and since I've had a question about what you can and can't assume; You may assume standard results such as Taylor series of functions, for example. Basically if you write a proof with standard results (within reason), you'll get the credit. Just do what you think is best
bloodhound Posted May 31, 2004 Posted May 31, 2004 dont know if this constitutes a rigorous proof, but here we go anyway Let us consider the function [math]y=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)[/math] Continuing to treat [math]i[/math] like any other number, we have, by differentiation, [math]\frac{dy}{dx}=-\sin(x)+i\cos(x)=i(\cos(x)+i\sin(x))[/math] Hence, [math]\frac{dy}{dx}=iy[/math] [math]i\frac{dx}{dy}=\frac{1}{y}[/math] [math]ix=\log(y)+c[/math] But when x= 0 , y = 1 , So c = 0 [math]ix=\log(y)[/math] [math]y=e^{ix}[/math] Therefore [math]y=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)=e^{ix}[/math] Another way to "show" this, is to use taylor expansions of /cosx and /sinx, form the linear combination [math]\cos(x)+i\sin(x)[/math] and show that its equivalent to the taylor expansion of [math]e^{ix}[/math], where [math]i[/math] is taken to be just another number. For the second part of the question, you just plug in x=pi in the identity.
Guest anipoh Posted June 1, 2004 Posted June 1, 2004 Those are two well know formulae. First is Euler's Formula and the second is de Moivre's Theorem if I'm not mistaken. By using Taylor series, Euler's formula is easily proven. And I may have seen the proof of de Moivre's theorem already, should leave it to some of you guys.
bloodhound Posted June 11, 2004 Posted June 11, 2004 For de Moivre's, use the Euler's formula to write [math] (\cos x + i\sin x)^n = (e^{ix} )^n [/math] [math] = e^{inx } = e^{i(\alpha )} [/math] where [math]\alpha=nx[/math] Using Euler's Formula again, [math] =\cos\alpha+i\sin\alpha [/math] [math] =\cos(nx)+i\sin(nx) [/math]
Dave Posted June 20, 2004 Author Posted June 20, 2004 Hurrah, we have a winner. I'll try and make the problem slightly more interesting next time, was kinda busy so came up with the problem in a rush.
arydberg Posted July 14, 2004 Posted July 14, 2004 You can use e^(ix) = cos x + i sin x to prove many trig identities. for example for the double angle formula e^(i2x) = cos 2x + i sin2x (1) but e^(i2x) = e^(ix) * e^(ix) = (cosx + isinx) * ( cosx + isinx) = (cosx)^2 - (sinx)^2 + 2iSinxCosx (2) so setting (1) equal to (2) cos2x + isin2x = (cosx)^2 - (sinx)^2 + 2isinx cosx equating both the real and imaginary parts we get cos 2x = (cosx) ^2 - (sinx)^2 and sin2x = 2sinx cosx
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now