JaKiri Posted July 6, 2004 Posted July 6, 2004 Isn't it [math]0^0[/math'], which means "how many 0s are there in 0" = 1. That's 0/0, and in any case your reasoning is hideously flawed. One 0 makes 0. Two 0's (0*0 or 2*0) make 0. Three 0's (0*0*0 or 3*0) make 0. And so on to infinity. Which one of those is 'right'?
lqg Posted July 6, 2004 Posted July 6, 2004 They most definitely are not. However' date=' 0^0 should be strictly speaking undefined, as the proof by notation that works for x^0 where x =! 0 doesn't hold if x = 0.[/quote'] why not? 0/0 is like 0^a/0^a=0^(a-a)=0^0 now why this is wrong? wait a minute perhaps it's not the same because zero can be represented in infinite state of powers: 0^a/0^2a=0^(a-2a)
Guest eyedea Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 0^0 is an "indeterminate", which is different than an undefined value. It means that it has been proven to be unexplainable. There are other indeterminates such as infinity^0, infinity/infinity, infinity/0, and some others.
Primarygun Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 Sorry, I am too lazy to have a look at this passage. I support what lgg say, 0^0=undefined=0/0, right?
paganinio Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 hmm you're not right 1, In High School Math, 0^0 and 0/0 are both undefined. 2, But in University, I am not sure. 3, Even if 0^0 is undefined, you cannot say 0^0 'EQUALS' undefined. It's a serious mistake.
Dapthar Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 hmm you're not right1' date=' In High School Math, 0^0 and 0/0 are both undefined. 2, But in University, I am not sure. 3, Even if 0^0 is undefined, you cannot say 0^0 [b']'EQUALS'[/b] undefined. It's a serious mistake. 1. True.2. They still are undefined at the University level, and beyond. 3. True.
Aeschylus Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 Hmm I've never been clear on this: is indeterminate value (such as 0/0) also undefined? Often 0^0 is simply defined as 1.Any way read this: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Indeterminate.html and this: http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.to.0.power.html
123rock Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 0^0 is the same as 0/0, that's why x^0, where x is not 0 is x/x=1
Aeschylus Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 0^0 is the same as 0/0, that's why x^0, where x is not 0 is x/x=1 What you're arguing from is the fact that that x^n/x^m generally equals x^(n-m), but it dods not neccessarily follow that x^0 = 0/0. You should be very, very careful about equating any intdeterminate or undwefined values.
MolecularMan14 Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 its like dividing anything by zero, it must be undifined...but mathmatically it comes out to 1...but thats probably just off of a theorem...Im sure there's a proof behind it.
ydoaPs Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 my TI83+ said it is undefined. it said "ERR:DOMAIN"
Dave Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 its like dividing anything by zero, it must be undifined...but mathmatically it comes out to 1...but thats probably just off of a theorem...Im sure there's a proof behind it. Say what now?
MolecularMan14 Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 is there a proof behind dividing something by 0...or a proof for having 0 to the 0?? My palm calculator probably just made it =1 because it was raised to the 0th power, and anything to the 0th is 1...even tho its undefined
Dave Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 Dividing anything by zero is an undefined operation. It's not really linked to 00 as far as I know.
MolecularMan14 Posted August 28, 2004 Posted August 28, 2004 yea i know, but its the same outcome...thats all i was saying
Dave Posted August 29, 2004 Posted August 29, 2004 Well, not really. Read post #5: generally 00 is regarded to be 1.
MolecularMan14 Posted August 29, 2004 Posted August 29, 2004 strange that so many calculators would come out with undefined...I have only tried it on one calc and found it to be 1
Primarygun Posted August 29, 2004 Posted August 29, 2004 Well, not really. Read post #5: generally 00[/sup'] is regarded to be 1. So far, my book told me x^0=1 when x is not equal to 0.
pulkit Posted August 29, 2004 Posted August 29, 2004 0^0 is an "indeterminate", which is different than an undefined value. It means that it has been proven to be unexplainable. There are other indeterminates such as infinity^0, infinity/infinity, infinity/0, and some others 0^0 is just undefined. You end up with indeterminate quantities when while taking a limit both numerator and denominator approach 0. But then too there is the easy way out of applying L'Hospital's rule and getting a value. Indeterminate merely implies that it may have different values in different situations.
Dave Posted August 29, 2004 Posted August 29, 2004 So far, my book told me x^0=1 when x is not equal to 0. Read the link in my first post on the subject.
123rock Posted August 30, 2004 Posted August 30, 2004 0^0 is not 1. 0/0 does not equal one, because 0 can be contained in 0 in more times than just 1. It's perhaps all real values, kinda like if x=a^2; then x has two solutions, a and -a, but that doesn't mean a=-a. In order for modern mathematicians to get this problem out of their way instead of solving like the good ol' times, they went ahead and said, "It's undefined."
Dapthar Posted August 30, 2004 Posted August 30, 2004 0^0 is not 1.Correct. 0/0 does not equal one,Correct. because 0 can be contained in 0 in more times than just 1.Nope. It's due to the fact that [math]a/b = c \iff a = b \cdot c[/math], where [math]c[/math] is unique for a given [math]a[/math] and [math]b[/math]. Note that if [math]b=0[/math] and [math]a[/math] is fixed, c can be any value, and therefore, it is not unique. Thus, division of any number by [math]0[/math] is undefined. It's perhaps all real values,Nope. Division of two real numbers is not a multiple valued operation. An example of a multiple valued operation is [math]\pm[/math]. An example is the quadratic formula (i.e. if [math]f(x)=ax^2+bx+c, x=\frac{-b\pm \sqrt {b^2-4ac}}{2a}[/math]). In order for modern mathematicians to get this problem out of their way instead of solving like the good ol' times, they went ahead and said, "It's undefined."Assigning a numerical value to these concepts that does not conflict with the definitions of division is currently, and may never be, possible. Thus, the "undefined" moniker.
123rock Posted August 31, 2004 Posted August 31, 2004 0/0=R and all imaginary numbers. if a/b=c, and a is 0, then c is 0 and can't be any other number but 0. +or-, thanks for the reminder. For the sake of logical thought and processing, since there can be two values for a quadratic equation, and 3 for a cubic, and so on, for x/0, or rather 0/0 there are in infinite number of solutions. 0/0=? 1 0/0=1/1*0/0 0/0=0/0 correct All real numbers and imaginary numbers follow the same pattern if 1 is replaced by x or any variable that you choose.
ydoaPs Posted August 31, 2004 Posted August 31, 2004 0/0=R and all imaginary numbers.if a/b=c' date=' and a is 0, then c is 0 and can't be any other number but 0. +or-, thanks for the reminder. For the sake of logical thought and processing, since there can be two values for a quadratic equation, and 3 for a cubic, and so on, for x/0, or rather 0/0 there are in infinite number of solutions. 0/0=? 1 0/0=1/1*0/0 0/0=0/0 correct All real numbers and imaginary numbers follow the same pattern if 1 is replaced by x or any variable that you choose.[/quote'] isn't 0/0 undefined?
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