Tracker Posted November 15, 2009 Share Posted November 15, 2009 Why is [math] \lim_{t\to0} \frac{\sin(t) }{t} = 1 [/math] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cap'n Refsmmat Posted November 15, 2009 Share Posted November 15, 2009 You could use L'Hopital's Rule on it. [math]\lim_{t\to 0} \frac{\sin t}{t} = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{\cos t}{1} = 1[/math] 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DJBruce Posted November 16, 2009 Share Posted November 16, 2009 You can also prove this limit using the squeeze theorem. Here is which shows the proof fairly nicely. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tracker Posted November 16, 2009 Author Share Posted November 16, 2009 Of course. Thank you both for reminding me. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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