Tracker Posted November 15, 2009 Posted November 15, 2009 Why is [math] \lim_{t\to0} \frac{\sin(t) }{t} = 1 [/math]
Cap'n Refsmmat Posted November 15, 2009 Posted November 15, 2009 You could use L'Hopital's Rule on it. [math]\lim_{t\to 0} \frac{\sin t}{t} = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{\cos t}{1} = 1[/math] 1
DJBruce Posted November 16, 2009 Posted November 16, 2009 You can also prove this limit using the squeeze theorem. Here is which shows the proof fairly nicely. 1
Tracker Posted November 16, 2009 Author Posted November 16, 2009 Of course. Thank you both for reminding me.
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