Layman Posted November 30, 2009 Posted November 30, 2009 Been reading a bit about the double slit experiment. Surely, freezing a point in time (from the observer's perspective) would result in the wave function of the particle not being oberved at that point in time, hence the single slit result? The only reason the wave exists is because the particle changes position over time?
Klaynos Posted November 30, 2009 Posted November 30, 2009 What do you mean freeze a point in time? If you picture it as a wave front that varies in time I'm not sure you get any issues.
Sisyphus Posted November 30, 2009 Posted November 30, 2009 What do you mean by freezing a point in time?
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