triclino Posted December 9, 2009 Posted December 9, 2009 is there any place in physics where , the Aristotelian logic does not apply??
ajb Posted December 10, 2009 Posted December 10, 2009 I am wondering about the use of topos theory and quantum logic a la Chris Isham. But I do not know enough about logic or topos theory to really say much.
triclino Posted December 10, 2009 Author Posted December 10, 2009 I am sorry i should have been more clear . By Aristotelian logic ,i mean the two value logic i.e true or false. So the problem becomes a problem ,of whether we have results in physics with a value more than two ( true or false ),or not.
Phi for All Posted December 10, 2009 Posted December 10, 2009 How tall are you? True/False?Assuming that questions can be either true or false is illogical.
triclino Posted December 10, 2009 Author Posted December 10, 2009 In which part of physics ,fuzzy logic applies??
ajb Posted December 12, 2009 Posted December 12, 2009 I think people have applied fuzzy logic to quantum questions. You will have to do a literature search to find out more.
dualitynature Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 Computers speak binary and they seem to do just fine.
Klaynos Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 Computers speak binary and they seem to do just fine. With binary it is trivially easy to write a sting that means 3 (in denary), therefore it is not limited to true false.
swansont Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 Superpositions might be considered to violate this.
dualitynature Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 With binary it is trivially easy to write a sting that means 3 (in denary), therefore it is not limited to true false. They can only arrive at 3 by combining 1s and 0s.
Sisyphus Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 Empiricism in general is about justification, not "truth." So really, there is no part of physics where Aristotelean logic applies. I'm pretty sure continuous mathematics can't be represented with Aristotelean logic, either, and obviously physics employs calculus. Disclaimer: I only vaguely remember studying logic.
Klaynos Posted February 2, 2010 Posted February 2, 2010 They can only arrive at 3 by combining 1s and 0s. And using denary you can only arrive at 13 using 1's and 3's, our number base is arbitary, it just happens humans like 10's probably due to having 10 digits.
dualitynature Posted February 3, 2010 Posted February 3, 2010 And using denary you can only arrive at 13 using 1's and 3's, our number base is arbitary, it just happens humans like 10's probably due to having 10 digits. Sure it's arbitrary as it doesn't appear to really matter what we call it so long as there are two (e.g. light-dark, positive-negative, electric-magnetic, 1-0, etc...) The main idea is that 2 is a minimum number or quantity. Possibly the minimum number for any real thing which exists.
vuquta Posted February 8, 2010 Posted February 8, 2010 Empiricism in general is about justification, not "truth." So really, there is no part of physics where Aristotelean logic applies. I'm pretty sure continuous mathematics can't be represented with Aristotelean logic, either, and obviously physics employs calculus. Disclaimer: I only vaguely remember studying logic. The axiom of infinity and then the axiom of the power set applied to the set of natural numbers generated by the axiom of infinity acquires the cardinality of continuity. So, Aristotelean logic is insufficient to generate the real numbers.
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