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Posted

When we measure specific heat capacity of a substance(liquid), simply we put a heater(made of metal) into the liquid. Then we turn on the power in order to let the electricity passes to the metal. At this moment, the metal heater get heat and conduct the heat by conduction to the liquid.

Lastly, energy involved in the process is measured by the joulemeter.

 

Then I think, doesn't the metal take up the energy as some energy would finally (from electric) stay in the metal heater, then why don't we measure it?

 

If the finally T for metal is 150 degree Cel from 50 degree cel and the water first is 50 degree Cel and finally 100 (liquid).

 

Then the energy absorbed by the metal, look it as copper, 210X100J=21000J

it is quite a large amount of energy.

 

Is that the scientist that measure the heat capacity assumed this and carried this out?

Anyone who is scientist may help me a lot@!

Posted

I think what you have mentioned is the basis for calibrating a machine. Each and every scientific instrument is going to have known and unkown variables that create interference. I believe what you do when conducting a specifive heat capacity experiment is to use a known standard, water which has a specific heat capacity of one. By comparing your substate of say ammoinia to your standard you can factor out the interference of the metal which absorbs some of the heat. I think.

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