mar Posted January 25, 2010 Posted January 25, 2010 Given two spheres touching at one point, would that be a surface? I think not, but I don't know how to begin to search for the proof. I thought maybe proving it isn't Hausdorff, but I'm not clear on how to go about it. Anyone can help? Sorry about the bad English, not my mother tongue...
the tree Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 I don't think so but I can't think of a proof either. Intuitively I'd say that's because you can draw Cartesian axes around that point - you could have an axis pointing at the two spheres but the the axis orthogonal to that would have nowhere to go.
npts2020 Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 Let me qualify this first by saying that I am not a mathematician but it seems to me that a point is the smallest part of a surface and not a surface in and of itself.
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