lucky45 Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 Is it possible that Einstein's theroy of reletivity might have a little flaw in it.Or is his theroy carved in stone\? and cannot be disputed
ajb Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 This depends what you mean. But you must be aware that special and general relativity have passed all direct and indirect tests asked of it. However, we know that general relativity cannot be the final word on the nature of space and time. Quantum effects need to be taken into account. Exactly how these will work and how these will modify low energy physics (not near Planck scale) awaits to be seen. For example, it is expected that there should be other terms in the Einstein--Hilbert action.
Bob_for_short Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 Is it possible that Einstein's theroy of relativity might have a little flaw in it.Or is his theory carved in stone and cannot be disputed Electrodynamics of a point-like charge has a "self-action" problem. This particular problem is still under consideration. (A. Einstein had never worried about it, though.)
abdelwahab Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 (edited) It has been found particles that move faster than light this particles called Tykons. This gives us impertion that the theory of relativity is not absolute true Edited February 4, 2010 by Cap'n Refsmmat link removed
ajb Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 (edited) It has been found particles that move faster than light this particles called Tykons. This gives us impertion that the theory of relativity is not absolute true As far as I know there has been no tangible evidence of Tachyons. Also, they in no way violate special relativity. However, quantum theory states that such particles are unstable and decay. Edited February 4, 2010 by Cap'n Refsmmat spam link removed
mulreay Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 Is it possible that Einstein's theroy of reletivity might have a little flawin it.Or is his theroy carved in stone\? and cannot be disputed I can answer both your questions with one rudimentary answer. No 'theory' is set in stone and can be subject to flaws as we progress in understanding. Hence we call them theories and not laws. e.g Theory of relativity. Laws of physics. Hope that explains well... something. As always my knowledge is limited and my opinion humble.
ajb Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 Law tends to be an old term for a theory. I don't think there is any deep technical difference.
mulreay Posted January 27, 2010 Posted January 27, 2010 Law tends to be an old term for a theory. I don't think there is any deep technical difference. I stand corrected.
michel123456 Posted February 1, 2010 Posted February 1, 2010 Any scientific theory is based on the scientific method: "Four essential elements of a scientific method are iterations, recursions, interleavings, and orderings of the following: Characterizations (observations, definitions, and measurements of the subject of inquiry) Hypotheses (theoretical, hypothetical explanations of observations and measurements of the subject) Predictions (reasoning including logical deduction from the hypothesis or theory) Experiments (tests of all of the above). from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_method#Elements_of_scientific_method We begin with observation, we end with observation. The circle must be closed. If something escapes from observation, the scientific method cannot apply and there is no proper theory. Relativity is based upon observation: C the speed of light is both a measurement and an axiom. And Relativity is supported by observational experiment. The circle is closed, everything goes well, Relativity is a Theory. But if Mother Nature was more tricky than we thought, and if something bizarre happened in what we call "observation", the tricky part would be hidden both in the axiom and in the experiment. Even in this case, the theory could work, the circle would still be closed, the "tricky error" would be "outside" the theory, and we would never be able to notice anything of it. Everything would be explained perfectly, mathematically, but not necessary the way it really works.
Sayonara Posted February 4, 2010 Posted February 4, 2010 Is it possible that Einstein's theroy of reletivity might have a little flawin it.Or is his theroy carved in stone\? and cannot be disputed We have had many, many discussions on exactly this topic. Try using the search function to find some; I am sure they will all be very helpful.
ranjan_adarsh Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 My view of seeing it is as follows:- d/dx of General Relativity= Special Relativity d/dx of Special Relativity= Newtonian Mechanics In other words, Newtonian is a mechanics of small speeds, where as special relativity is a mechanics in smaller acc. tending to zero. However in my view there is no flaw in any theory, its just a change in perception that we have because of the change in our way to see the approximations.
Hawkin'sDawkins Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 There is actually one known floor in the famous "E=mc2" For Einstein or anyone else deriving and simplifying this equation there is a square root to be resolved. Any function involving a square root always has 2 solutions, one positive and one negative. e.g. the square root of 4 is 2, but it is also -2. So the famous equation should read E=±mc2 In this formula, the existence of negative matter and negative energy are allowed for.
swansont Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 There is actually one known floor in the famous "E=mc2" For Einstein or anyone else deriving and simplifying this equation there is a square root to be resolved. Any function involving a square root always has 2 solutions, one positive and one negative. e.g. the square root of 4 is 2, but it is also -2. So the famous equation should read E=±mc2 In this formula, the existence of negative matter and negative energy are allowed for. Not from E=mc^2 itself, since there is no square root involved. Rather, it comes from the equation E^2 = p^2c^2 + m^2c^4, which is the "parent" equation, and allows for a negative mass (not matter) or energy solution. Antimatter was predicted via the Dirac equation, which is related, but not really the same. But we really don't know what negative energy is, being a scalar quantity, so that solution is generally ignored.
Hawkin'sDawkins Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 allows for a negative mass (not matter) You are of course correct there, my mistake.
michel123456 Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 "E=mc2" is there another equation in physics where the constant is squared?
liarliarpof Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 Thank you, swansont, for clarifying the 'E=mc(2)' issue (The equation is correct if 'm' represents the relativistic mass, not the rest mass). And Kudos to michel123456 for reminding us of The Scientific Method, the 'litmus test' by which ideas and concepts are elevated to 'Theory' status, which seems to be conveniently ignored in certain cases these days. I suspect GR will continue to hold up to future tests (within its limitations, of which Einstein was keenly aware). Consider this: QM comes in various 'Interpretations', whereas GR is BRAND NAME ONLY!
swaha Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 yes B/E=c2 where B is magnetic & E electric field.
michel123456 Posted February 6, 2010 Posted February 6, 2010 yes B/E=c2 where B is magnetic & E electric field. Hm. I mean it is unusual to square a constant. Usually, the squared values are variables, like in [math]\pi r^2[/math]. In reality in [math]e=m c^2[/math], [math]c^2[/math] is the constant, not c.
insane_alien Posted February 6, 2010 Posted February 6, 2010 it's a product of the derivation of the equation. besides, its better to have the one constant with an operator instead of making up a second constant so it doesn't require an operator.
ajb Posted February 6, 2010 Posted February 6, 2010 Hm. I mean it is unusual to square a constant. Usually, the squared values are variables, like in [math]\pi r^2[/math]. In reality in [math]e=m c^2[/math], [math]c^2[/math] is the constant, not c. For example, [math]\hbar^{k}[/math] for [math]k [/math] a natural number occurs in quantum theory.
swansont Posted February 6, 2010 Posted February 6, 2010 The fine structure constant has the square of the fundamental charge The Bohr radius has e^2 and h^2 The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has k^4 and h^3
michel123456 Posted February 10, 2010 Posted February 10, 2010 The fine structure constant has the square of the fundamental charge The Bohr radius has e^2 and h^2 The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has k^4 and h^3 Hm. Right. I still find it intriguing to square a constant. Is that so natural? When Insane-A says besides, its better to have the one constant with an operator instead of making up a second constant so it doesn't require an operator. i am not so sure it is so simple.C has unities meter/sec. When you square C, you square the unities as well. Csquared are m^2 / sec^2 which is physically representing something (what is it ?) that is not a speed any more.
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