ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 one time a girl at my school told me that girls are better because they have more genetic material. then i got to thinking, and females don't use all of thiers. so, by her logic, guys are better. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 one time a girl at my school told me that girls are better because they have more genetic material. She is wrong. then i got to thinking, and females don't use all of thiers. ..... guys are better. You are wrong. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 niether are "better". females do have more genetic material. how am i wrong? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Females have two X chromosomes, which is advantage because it prevents them suffering from diseases caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 that has nothing to do with this thread. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Err, why not? Females have more genetic material, which prevents them getting disease, which makes them better. Ja? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 no, that is not what prevents some genetic disorders. the same thing would happen if they had less genetic material than males. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 ...isn't that the point? Having more gentic material makes them better? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 no, having more genetic material doesn't matter because they use less than males do. they only use one X chromosome. it is called X inactivation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Females have two X chromosomes, which is advantage because it prevents them suffering from diseases caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. Like Skye said, this is the only chromosome in the female genome that has a few more 'extra' genes on it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 Like Skye said, this is the only chromosome in the female genome that has a few more 'extra' genes on it. they don't use it. so, one could say having two X chromosomes doesn't make you a female, the lack of a Y chromosome does. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Excuse me. I'm not thinking straight for the time being. Primarily because I have to divide my attention between my work and the forums. Obviously one is more important then the other. I should be able to provide you with a better answer once things settle down here a bit. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Of course they use it. Expressed is suppressed to allow proper levels the gene products to be produced, but recesses sex-linked diseases are be prevented by having a copy of a functional gene that is expressed. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 no, they only use one of them. if they use both they would have genetic disorders. sex-linked traits are determined by the y chromosome. the recessive trait on the X chromosome has no dominant trait on the y if it is a female. that is how sex-linked traits work. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Are you saying that there aren't any genetic disorders that come from the X chromosome(Y chromosome is not in this equation obviously)? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 they are recessive traits or on parts of the chromosome that do not have a corrosponding part on the Y. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Have you ever heard of Mendelian disorder? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 no, wat is it? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 sex-linked traits are determined by the y chromosome. Sex-linked diseases are usually on the X chromosome. the recessive trait on the X chromosome has no dominant trait on the y if it is a female. that is how sex-linked traits work. You might want to explain yourself more clearly, because it seems to me that you misunderstand how sex-linked diseases work. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 i said they were on the x chromosome. i said they were DETERMINED by the Y chromosome. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Skye Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 They, sex-linked diseases that is, aren't determined by the Y chromosome. Sex itself is determined by the Y chromosome, but that has nothing to do with sex-linked diseases. Sex-linked diseases usually occur because there is a mutation to a gene on the X chromosome that means that it is no longer functional. Women have much lower rates (orders of magnitude lower) of sex-linked diseases because if they have one non-functional gene on one chromosome the other chromosome usually contains a functional copy, which is expressed and everything is hunky dory. Men don't have that extra chromosome so if they get a non-functional gene, they are stuck with it. So clearly there's an advantage to carrying spare genes around. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 the copy with the functional gene just happens to be the one that doesn't work. you just said that it is determined by the y chromosome. read your post. that is all i meant when i said it was determined by the y chromosome. you read too much into it. how is there an advantage when it doesn't work. it makes no protiens at all. it does NOTHING. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 They' date=' sex-linked diseases that is, aren't determined by the Y chromosome. Sex itself is determined by the Y chromosome, but that has nothing to do with sex-linked diseases. Sex-linked diseases usually occur because there is a mutation to a gene on the X chromosome that means that it is no longer functional. Women have much lower rates (orders of magnitude lower) of sex-linked diseases because if they have one non-functional gene on one chromosome the other chromosome usually contains a functional copy, which is expressed and everything is hunky dory. Men don't have that extra chromosome so if they get a non-functional gene, they are stuck with it. So clearly there's an advantage to carrying spare genes around.[/quote'] Right. That's why colorblindness is usually found in Men. However, women are not immune from being colorblind, except that happens very, very rarely. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted August 2, 2004 Author Share Posted August 2, 2004 I said the diseases were on they x chromosome, but your reason for them to affect males makes no sense since THE SECOND X CHROMOSOME DOES NOTHING. IT COULD BE REMOVED AFTER FERTILIZATION AND THERE WOULD BE NO DIFFERENCE. ONLY ONE OF THE X CHROMOSOMES DOES ANYTHING. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
admiral_ju00 Posted August 2, 2004 Share Posted August 2, 2004 Mendelian disorder is a single gene disorder. Meaning it can happen on any allele and on any chromosome. However since you question everything I say, I found you a more official version of the above said: A single gene disorder (also called Mendelian disorder) is one that is determined by a single genetic locus and the specific allele on one or both members of a chromosome pair. Single gene defects are rare, with a frequency of less than 1 in 200 births. But since there are about 6,000 known single gene disorders, their combined impact is significant. The incidence of serious single gene disorders is estimated to be about 1 in 200 births. Single-gene disorders are characterized by the pattern of transmission in families -- this is called a pedigree. The term "kindred" includes the relatives outside of the immediate nuclear family. The affected individual that initially comes to light (or is of immediate interest) is called the proband. The brothers and sisters of the proband are called siblings. Courtesy of: http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ency/article/002048.htm Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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