danny burton Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 Universe/Time = 1/(∞-1) so what's wrong with this? the implied value of infinity changes over time but as it is equally impossible to count to 3 using 2 quanta as it is to count to 1000 using 999 quanta the actual value remains ∞ in each successive time frame. surely?
insane_alien Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 why would infinity-1 equal time? how is the above equation derived? the value of inifinity doesn't actually change. mainly because it doesn't have a value. its not something you can sit on the number line. EDIT: also, if i count from zero in quanta of 1000/999 (1.001001001...) then it is perfectly possible to count to 1000 in 999 quanta. counting to 3 in two quanta is also easy, just make the quanta 3/2(1.5)
Radical Edward Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 infinity - 1 is infinity, for any infinity.
danny burton Posted March 13, 2010 Author Posted March 13, 2010 (edited) re: insane alien addition in quanta of 1000/999 rly? a natural number of quanta cannot express the number of quanta in its own set plus one, as an integer. therefore it can only imply the existence of natural number sets of higher value than itself. infinity retains its absolute value (ie unknowable). infinity being defined as the number you can't count to at whatever time you are currently in. the number you can count to changes as the universe gets older. Edited March 13, 2010 by danny burton lmao
insane_alien Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 re: insane alien addition in quanta of 1000/999 rly? yep. try it and see. infinity being defined as the number you can't count to at whatever time you are currently in. the number you can count to changes as the universe gets older. ah so you are changing the definition of infinity to fit some befudled theory of yours. you can't count to a googolplex in the tim e the universe has been around(even if you count to a trillion in a planck second) yet this number is not equal to infinity.
danny burton Posted March 13, 2010 Author Posted March 13, 2010 (edited) a googleplex IS infinity if you cannot count to it. and where do you get the 1000 quanta to divide? there are only 999 quanta in this thought experiment. and could we please keep this polite? especially when you're the one trying to split quanta. quanta you don't even have. Edited March 13, 2010 by danny burton lack of quanta. lol
insane_alien Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 i'm not trying to split quanta at all nor do i pull 1000 quanta out of anywhere. if one quatna equals 1000/999 then it will only take 999 of them to reach 1000 as 1000/999*999 = 1000 a quanta does not have to equal unity. and a googolplex can be counted to, just not very quickly if you count each number.
danny burton Posted March 13, 2010 Author Posted March 13, 2010 how can 1 quanta express 1000/999? 1 quanta = 1 definitively. if 1 quanta < 1 then it isn't 1 quanta, it's 1 quanta plus more quanta. how do you represent 2 using 1 node? Merged post follows: Consecutive posts mergedand a googolplex (lmao) can be counted to for sure, but only in a googolplex worth of quanta.
insane_alien Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 a quanta does not need to equal 1. all it is is a discrete value, in a range of quanta no values exist between the quanta, only the quanta themselves thats all it means. say the governement abolished the 1p and 2p coins, that would mean that the smallest quanta currency came in would be 5p and all values must be multiples of 5p as that is the size of the quanta. of course this analogy discounts electronic trading where no such limitations exist and you can even have divisions of a penny traded, but that lies outside the bounds of the analogy.
danny burton Posted March 13, 2010 Author Posted March 13, 2010 in terms of how you'd pay for something that cost 7 pence, yes a 5pence would be a quanta wouldn't it if they abolished 1p and 2p pieces. but you'd have to buy 5 of the things before you got your money's worth. i can't be bothered explaining the basics. argue amongst yourslef if you want.
insane_alien Posted March 13, 2010 Posted March 13, 2010 you can't be bothered explaining the basics? ha. i do know what a quantum is and so do most of the other people on this board many of us use some degree of quantum mechanics in our jobs(i don't, but what i'm involved in does involve quanta as its a discrete system rather than a continuous). if i didn't know what a quanta was then i'd probably have been fired by now. i suggest that you go look up the mathematical definitions of both quanta and infinity.
danny burton Posted March 15, 2010 Author Posted March 15, 2010 ahem PWNT http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constructivism_%28mathematics%29
Sisyphus Posted March 15, 2010 Posted March 15, 2010 (edited) Universe/Time = 1/(∞-1) so what's wrong with this? What's wrong with it is that this equation doesn't actually mean anything. What is universe/time? And you can't do arithmetic operations with infinity, so the right side doesn't mean anything either. You seem to be defining infinity as the age of the universe divided by the planck time, plus one. Correct? Well, that isn't what infinity means. That's a finite value, for any given age of the universe. It can be calculated. Or it could be, except that the age of the universe is not a single value , since it depends on frame of reference. Edited March 15, 2010 by Sisyphus
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