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Posted

My math teachers say that 0 to the power of 0 is undefined, but after messing around a little, I found this:

00=00 Original equation

00=00*1 Multiply one side by one

00/00=1 Divide both sides by 00

00=1 Simplify using the division laws of exponents

 

Are my teachers incorrect or did I make a mistake?

Posted

The term undefined itself implies that it will not obey mathematical laws..so your whole lt of equations are undefined

Posted

Also, you can't multiply only one side without changing the meaning of the equation and making it a non equality.

 

So even if you treat the 0^0 as a variable/number, your second step should be

 

[math]0^0*1=0^0*1[/math]

And so:

 

[math]\frac{0^0}{0^0}*1=\frac{0^0}{0^0}*1[/math] Divide both sides by 0^0

 

[math]0^0*1=0^0*1[/math] Simplify using the division laws of exponents -- and go back to your first step. Hence, this exercise didn't really help much.

 

 

Moreover, when you divide both sides by 0^0 in your third step, you arbitrarily decide that 0^0/0^0 on the right side is 1 (it disappears) but on the left side it doesn't.

 

You need to be consistent.

 

~moo

Posted

What the OP did would have been valid -- if 00 was a valid expression to start with. Multiplying an expression by one (or adding zero to it) does not change the expression. Sometimes writing one (or zero) in a rather clever way can help simplify an expression greatly.

 

The problem with 00 is that there is no consistent way to define it. The reason is that the expression [math]x^y[/math] takes on all values in any punctured neighborhood of the origin in [math]\mathbb R^2[/math]. Explicitly defining 00 will introduce inconsistencies. Above all else, mathematics must be consistent. Introducing an inconsistency sends mathematics toward a disaster of biblical proportions. Real wrath of God type of stuff. Human sacrifice, dogs and cats living together... mass hysteria! And of course, 1=2. Not good.

 

That said, mathematicians use 00=1 as a very convenient abuse of notation in many contexts. Power series, the binomial theorem, for example.

Posted
What the OP did would have been valid -- if 00 was a valid expression to start with. Multiplying an expression by one (or adding zero to it) does not change the expression. Sometimes writing one (or zero) in a rather clever way can help simplify an expression greatly.

Hm, I thought about this and I think I remember a few examples now of this done. Namely, when we wanted to get "tricks" of completing a square in a fractions' denominator, by multiplying it by its conjugate divided by the conjugate (hence, 1). So, yeah, I take it back.

 

I do have another issue with this though. Even if 0^0 was defined -- the division by 0(to the power of whatever) is undefined on its own. Yielding "infinity". Is that 'step' mathematically legal, D H ?

Posted

There is no division by zero, mooey. The problem arises from assuming that 00 is valid in the first place.

 

This is an old debate. 00 is taken to be one in many contexts, zero in a few others, and indeterminate in yet other contexts. It is very handy to use 00=1 in the context of power series and the binomial theorem, for example.

 

Consider a power series f(x) about some point c and the binomial expansion of [math](x+y)^n[/math].

The notional use of 00=1 (strictly speaking, abuse of notation) enables us to write

 

 

[math]f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n (x-c)^n[/math]

 

[math](x+y)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n\binom n k x^{n-k}y^k[/math]

 

 

Without this convenient abuse of notation we would have to write these as

 

 

[math]f(x) = a_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n (x-c)^n[/math]

 

[math](x+y)^n = x^n + y^n + \sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\binom n k x^{n-k}y^k[/math]

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