happyhim3 Posted March 27, 2010 Share Posted March 27, 2010 Hello, this is my first thread and first post. I was bored today and came up with this interesting problem that I cannot solve (probably to do with the fact that I'm only in calculus II). We are going through sequences so this is my inspiration. So here it goes. (Note: I'll be using a sub n in place of n being a subscript of a because I don't know how to do that on this forum.) Let a be a sequence with a sub n being the nth term. Let a sub n=n^(n^x)/(n!)^n. Find max. a sub n in terms of x where x satisfies that the limit of a sub n as n approaches infinity equals zero and n is in the natural number set. Have fun. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Amr Morsi Posted March 29, 2010 Share Posted March 29, 2010 Differentiate with respect to n and equate to zero. And, then find the nearest natural number. Note that x will be considered a constant. Also, I think that n! will be considered constant as differentiation is over a small variation around n. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bignose Posted March 30, 2010 Share Posted March 30, 2010 Differentiate with respect to n and equate to zero. And, then find the nearest natural number. Note that x will be considered a constant. Also, I think that n! will be considered constant as differentiation is over a small variation around n. If you are going to differentiate with respect to n, you cannot let n! be a constant. n! is the term with the greatest rate of change for large n in that expression. To do it right, you'd use the Gamma function as the extension of the factorial to the reals, and use the derivative of the Gamma function. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Amr Morsi Posted March 30, 2010 Share Posted March 30, 2010 You are right Bignose. But, isn't the power here is most significant: (n!)^n. Plus, at large n the sequence turns to zero. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted April 1, 2010 Share Posted April 1, 2010 You are right Bignose. But, isn't the power here is most significant: (n!)^n.The difference in the derviatives of the denominator seem too big to ignore when you take n! to be constant. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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