alejandrito20 Posted April 3, 2010 Share Posted April 3, 2010 (edited) i need to evaluate [math](A'e^{nA})'[/math],where [math]A=kte |\phi|[/math],with [math]\phi[/math] a angular coordinate between [math](-\pi,\pi)[/math] upon a line integration over a closed path along the coordinate angular [math]\phi[/math].......¿why the result is zero? ....' is the derivate on [math]\phi[/math] Edited April 4, 2010 by alejandrito20 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Amr Morsi Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 Do you know the equation of the path? Or, it is simply r*phi? If so, are you sure that the bounded integral is zero? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 Argh, so many letters. I'm guessing the primes are for first derivatives, but with respect to what? And is e|phi| meant to read e|phi|? Knowing what path would certainly be helpful as well. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alejandrito20 Posted April 4, 2010 Author Share Posted April 4, 2010 Do you know the equation of the path? No If so, are you sure that the bounded integral is zero YES Merged post follows: Consecutive posts merged Knowing what path would certainly be helpful as well. in the article ( arxiv.org/abs/0907.1321v1) says: "Note also that the left hand side of the equation (10) vanishes upon a line integration over a closed path along the compact internal space." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 i need to evaluate [math](A'e^{nA})'[/math],where [math]A=kte |\phi|[/math],with [math]\phi[/math] in the article ( arxiv.org/abs/0907.1321v1) says: "Note also that the left hand side of the equation (10) vanishes upon a line integration over a closed path along the compact internal space." But the LHS of equation 10 in that article is [imath]\nabla \cdot (W^\zeta \nabla W)[/imath]. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
timo Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 But the LHS of equation 10 in that article is [imath]\nabla \cdot (W^\zeta \nabla W)[/imath]. In which case "gradient field" is the term you want to look up. The vanishing of the integral over any closed path is a property of a gradient field. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Amr Morsi Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 If W is only a function of phi, then it will turn to something like the formula written by alejandrito but divided by r^2*(sin(theta))^2........... Merged post follows: Consecutive posts mergedI think that "compact inetrnal space" defines the path. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted April 4, 2010 Share Posted April 4, 2010 But the LHS of equation 10 in that article is [imath]\nabla \cdot (W^\zeta \nabla W)[/imath]. In which case "gradient field" is the term you want to look up. The vanishing of the integral over any closed path is a property of a gradient field.I thought that'd apply in this, although I wasn't certain so I didn't want to say it outright. I'm still befuddled as to how it's connected to the expression presented in the OP. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alejandrito20 Posted April 5, 2010 Author Share Posted April 5, 2010 In which case "gradient field" is the term you want to look up. The vanishing of the integral over any closed path is a property of a gradient field. but, i read that : If A = grad F,The line integral over a gradient field is equal to the difference between the values of the potential function at the end-points ...the integral round a closed curve has the value zero... i think that [math]\oint \nabla W \cdot dr=0[/math] but [math]\oint \nabla \cdot (W^\zeta \nabla W) dr[/math], with z a number, ¿is zero too??????? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Amr Morsi Posted April 5, 2010 Share Posted April 5, 2010 The former integral you introduced in the first post gets vanished. Just substitute with phi1=phi+pi and integrate from phi1=0 to phi1=2pi. The derivative will cancel out with the integration. Or, you may use the definition you posted before in another thread: [math] \frac{d^2|\phi|}{d\phi^2}=2(\delta(\phi)-\delta(\pi-\phi)) [/math] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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